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Ganzfeld Experiments

Evidently, Linda doesn't feel the same way. She seems to think he is out for "fun and profit". I imagine it would be hard to like or respect a scientist if one thinks they are after money and a good time. She probably pictures him smoking pot and laughing all the way to the bank with loose party-girls on his arm.

That is the picture I intended to invoke, but maybe it was expecting too much of you that you would recognize it as silly and giggle about it?

Linda
 
Have you ever read any of the research? :) Nothing like an informed opinion and an open mind?

j x

Some, yes, and it tells me diddly-squat.

I don't rule out anything, including the chimera of psi, but up to now the "evidence," such as it is, has been thoroughly underwhelming.

Careful your mind's not so open that your brains fall out.


M.
 
That is the picture I intended to invoke, but maybe it was expecting too much of you that you would recognize it as silly and giggle about it?

Linda


Oh, I believe you intended to invoke that picture, but I don't believe you intended it in a "silly and giggle" type way.

Unless you are a defense lawyer who specializes in getting guilty clients off the hook, you missed your calling Linda.
 
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Oh, I believe you intended to invoke that picture, but I don't believe you intended it in a "silly and giggle" type way.

That's too bad. It would be much pleasanter for you if you did.

Unless you are a defense lawyer who specializes in getting guilty clients off the hook, you missed your calling Linda.

Do you really think that'd work in a court of law? I'm not sure whether or not I should be worried or hopeful. I'll have to ask LossLeader.

Linda
 
Do you agree with skeptics who feel that way, like Linda for instance? If not (I suspect not), have you ever tried to correct such an impression in a fellow skeptic? Or do you let it slide?

I let it slide. I'm not here to win hearts and minds, just to work out what's going on.

You say you find his stuff worth reading. I think it's safe to say you wouldn't feel that way if you felt his stuff wasn't done "in a rigorous and sound manner". Therefore, you must feel that at least some psychical research is quality work, right? So what would you say to a skeptic who says (directly or indirectly) that none of it is "rigorous and sound"?

Well, that's not true. There is. I often see people say "there's no evidence for psi", but in fact there is - it's just not very good.
 
I let it slide. I'm not here to win hearts and minds, just to work out what's going on.

Does that mean that you think it's unreasonable of me to point out when someone has used post-hoc group formation as a means of finding a significant difference when the main outcome is unremarkable?

I still need an answer to your comment about M&W's use of the Stouffer z. As far as I can see, it was formed as you described for its usual use, and it doesn't seem to give a significant result when formed that way. What am I missing?

Linda
 
Does that mean that you think it's unreasonable of me to point out when someone has used post-hoc group formation as a means of finding a significant difference when the main outcome is unremarkable?

I was answering Limbo's point about skeptics' views on parapsychologists in general, not about the Bierman paper.

As for the M&W paper, I'll have another look at it and the arguments around it. I'll have an answer after lunch.
 
As for the M&W paper, I'll have another look at it and the arguments around it. I'll have an answer after lunch.

Is there some part of that argument available online? I don't want to spoil your appetite. :)

Linda
 
I'm confused. I thought that the Stouffer z for the database as a whole is the one reported in the M&W paper as non-significant (z=0.70, p=0.24 one-tailed). Is that not the way you said it's supposed to be used?

The main problem I have with the M&W and the subsequent Bem paper is that when I try to replicate the calculations, I get somewhat different results and I haven't yet figured out why. The point Rodney brought up earlier would be one example.

Linda

Hmm, this is frustrating. I could’ve sworn I had more on this than I have. The first I heard of this was in an interview with Dean Radin on the podcast Skeptiko about a year ago.

"So when his article [the M&W meta-analysis] came out I went and looked at the actual studies that he used, the thirty some studies that had been published in the range that he considered and I reanalysed it from the get-go and I actually ended up with a significant result. And I went back to find out what was the difference. I mean we were working from exactly the same data. What I discovered what he had used a method of statistical accumulation of the data which wasn't as powerful as he could have. And all of the previous meta-analyses had been based on a very simple counting of the number of hits and misses and on that basis, the basis of hits and misses, like all of the other analyses, his result would have been a significant finding."


I assumed, that the "method of statistical accumulation" was using the Stouffer z on separate experiments, which seemed to be borne out by Rodney (who emailed Daryl Bem about it). But I can’t find any published paper that makes this claim. I must’ve misremembered.
 
Hmm, this is frustrating. I could’ve sworn I had more on this than I have. The first I heard of this was in an interview with Dean Radin on the podcast Skeptiko about a year ago.

I assumed, that the "method of statistical accumulation" was using the Stouffer z on separate experiments, which seemed to be borne out by Rodney (who emailed Daryl Bem about it). But I can’t find any published paper that makes this claim. I must’ve misremembered.

Thanks for checking that. It looks like Radin is talking about simply combining all the results (as though it were one giant experiment) in the manner that Rodney has talked about before (and maybe that's where Rodney got the idea), although I could have sworn that it was carefully explained to Rodney why this can lead to invalid results using (I think) batting averages as an example. Anyway, I need to confirm that this is what Bem was talking about. I'm harping on about this because I want to recommend that you use a method of combining studies that is familiar to parapsychologists, but not to the point of recommending something that obviously has the characteristics of 'likely to lead to invalid conclusions'. And I'd really be surprised and disturbed to discover that Bem and Radin would think that it was okay to do this with the ganzfeld data.

Linda
 
Thanks for checking that. It looks like Radin is talking about simply combining all the results (as though it were one giant experiment) in the manner that Rodney has talked about before (and maybe that's where Rodney got the idea), although I could have sworn that it was carefully explained to Rodney why this can lead to invalid results using (I think) batting averages as an example. Anyway, I need to confirm that this is what Bem was talking about. I'm harping on about this because I want to recommend that you use a method of combining studies that is familiar to parapsychologists, but not to the point of recommending something that obviously has the characteristics of 'likely to lead to invalid conclusions'. And I'd really be surprised and disturbed to discover that Bem and Radin would think that it was okay to do this with the ganzfeld data.

Linda
What Bem communicated to me in an e-mail was that he found Milton's & Wiseman's statistical methodology flawed, but went along with it in his, Palmer's, and Broughton's follow-up paper "Updating the Ganzfeld Database: A Victim of its Own Success?" because -- even using M&W's methodology -- the results were statistically significant and he, Palmer, and Broughton saw no need to fight an unnecessary statistical battle.

I was the one who suggested that the hits and misses from 26 of the 30 studies analyzed by M&W could simply be summed to calculate a binomial probability for those 26 studies because each of them used a hit or miss protocol. When that is done, p = 1.1%. I further noted that the other four studies comprised only 128 trials (I mistakenly said 148 previously) relative to 1,198 trials overall in the 30 studies, and the hit rate can be imputed for those 128 trials. Therefore, while there might be a better way to account for those four studies, it seemed reasonable as at least a good approximation to add the imputed hits in those four studies to the actual hits in the other 26 studies to calculate a binomial probability for the 30 studies. When that is done, p = 2.4%. If you have a better way of calculating the p value for the 30 studies analyzed by M&W, please advise.
 
What Bem communicated to me in an e-mail was that he found Milton's & Wiseman's statistical methodology flawed, but went along with it in his, Palmer's, and Broughton's follow-up paper "Updating the Ganzfeld Database: A Victim of its Own Success?" because -- even using M&W's methodology -- the results were statistically significant and he, Palmer, and Broughton saw no need to fight an unnecessary statistical battle.

Did he say what the flaw was?

(btw, the Kanthamani & Broughton experiments did report hit rates.)
 
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Did he say what the flaw was?
He said that statistician Jessica Utts (from UC Davis) told him that Milton and Wiseman should have weighted each experiment by the number of sessions it contained.

(btw, the Kanthamani & Broughton experiments did report hit rates. Although reading the paper "Institute for Parapsychology Ganzfeld-ESP experiments: The Manual Series" throws up a little more confusion, since it describes series 6 as having 60 trials and 30 subjects in the main text, but as having 66 trials and 36 subjects in the tabulated results. Possibly a mis-typing?)

Really? In the Bem, Broughton, and Palmer paper, there is a footnote attached to these experiments, as well as to the Stanford & Frank and Parker & Westerlund experiments, which states: "Hit rate not reported. Estimated from z score."
 
ETA: Answered above.

I was the one who suggested that the hits and misses from 26 of the 30 studies analyzed by M&W could simply be summed to calculate a binomial probability for those 26 studies because each of them used a hit or miss protocol.

Okay, that makes me feel better about Bem.

Linda
 
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Really? In the Bem, Broughton, and Palmer paper, there is a footnote attached to these experiments, as well as to the Stanford & Frank and Parker & Westerlund experiments, which states: "Hit rate not reported. Estimated from z score."

In the original papers Kanthamani wrote, there's no hit rate, but in the paper collecting all the Inst. for Parap. ganzfeld experiments (the Kathamani & Broughton one) it lists them in a table reporting hit rates. I guess it depends what paper they looked at.
 
Okay, that makes me feel better about Bem.
But evidently not about me. ;) So, can you enlighten me as to why summing the results for the 26 studies is invalid? And what method would you use?
 
In the original papers Kanthamani wrote, there's no hit rate, but in the paper collecting all the Inst. for Parap. ganzfeld experiments (the Kathamani & Broughton one) it lists them in a table reporting hit rates. I guess it depends what paper they looked at.
What were the hit rates? In the Bem, Broughton, and Palmer paper, they are reported as follows:

1) Kanthamani & Khilji (1992) (Series 6b): 40 trials, 30% estimated hit rate.

2) Kanthamani & Broughton (1992) (Series 6a): 20 trials, 25% estimated hit rate.

3) Kanthamani et al. (1988) (Series 5b): 10 trials, 10% estimated hit rate.
 
But evidently not about me. ;) So, can you enlighten me as to why summing the results for the 26 studies is invalid?

Because it can result in conclusions that are markedly different from the conclusions that can be drawn from individual studies. It introduces a bias that corresponds to differences in the size of the various groups studied.

And what method would you use?

Usually we use odds-ratios or risk-ratios for dichotomous data. Depending upon whether we think we are testing a fixed-effect or a random-effect, we may choose to combine them using Mantel-Hanzel or inverse variance methods - a sort of weighted average using variance to provide the weight.

Linda
 
Because it can result in conclusions that are markedly different from the conclusions that can be drawn from individual studies. It introduces a bias that corresponds to differences in the size of the various groups studied.
That seems to contradict the batting average example you pointed me toward. As the Wikipedia article notes, a batting average for a small number of at-bats can be highly misleading, but is highly meaningful over several thousand at bats. Similarly, it seems to me, the results of a single Ganzfeld experiment with a small number of trials can be highly misleading, but, when grouped with a number of similar experiments, the results can be highly meaningful. One of the experiments analyzed by Milton and Wiseman had four trials with two hits -- what possible conclusion can be drawn from that one experiment, if it is not grouped with other experiments?

Usually we use odds-ratios or risk-ratios for dichotomous data. Depending upon whether we think we are testing a fixed-effect or a random-effect, we may choose to combine them using Mantel-Hanzel or inverse variance methods - a sort of weighted average using variance to provide the weight.
What do you believe is the bet way to combine the 30 studies analyzed by M&W, and what overall probability would that produce?
 
What were the hit rates? In the Bem, Broughton, and Palmer paper, they are reported as follows:

1) Kanthamani & Khilji (1992) (Series 6b): 40 trials, 30% estimated hit rate.

2) Kanthamani & Broughton (1992) (Series 6a): 20 trials, 25% estimated hit rate.

3) Kanthamani et al. (1988) (Series 5b): 10 trials, 10% estimated hit rate.

The Kanthamani/Broughton paper there's no distinction between to two halves of each experiemnt. Series 5 is reported as having 14 trials and 4 hits, series 6 is listed as having 66 trials and 18 hits (which is odd, since everywhere else it's said to have 60 trials).
 

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