Deeper than primes

Status
Not open for further replies.
So once again you demonstrate your inability to get self-reference results ( as clearly explained in http://www.geocities.com/complementarytheory/OMPT.pdf pages 15 - 17).

Would those “results” be comprehensive, or be results that are “more comprehensive then” themselves?

Ride on The Man on your Weak Emergence horse, and keep your ignorance as long as you can along your dragged point path.

Dream on Doron, since it is the only way you can keep your ignorance while we drag you kicking a screaming in the direction of an understanding of ‘standard math’, linguistics and the contradictions of your own assertions.

After this dialog with you and your friends, it is clear that you are nothing but a fanatic community of people like any religious sect, no more no less.

Again with the labeling Doron, what’s next are you going to pronounce that you will not respond to us or just myself…

…again?

Here is a concrete example of your inability to get new notions: http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4736064&postcount=2973 .

Again Doron, trivial proclamations presented as if significant, meaningless representations considered as enlighten or enlightening, baseless assertions and claims, including misuse of terminology as well as gibberish in general being touted as insightful knowledge are by no means “new notions” on this forum.
 
So, Doron, when can we expect your proof that real numbers must have immediate successors and/or immediate predecessors?

It is obviously true since the term all is used on an interval of R members by Standard Math, and as we all know, there are no "gaps" between R members along the real-line, according to Standard Math.
 
Last edited:
Would those “results” be comprehensive, or be results that are “more comprehensive then” themselves?



Dream on Doron, since it is the only way you can keep your ignorance while we drag you kicking a screaming in the direction of an understanding of ‘standard math’, linguistics and the contradictions of your own assertions.



Again with the labeling Doron, what’s next are you going to pronounce that you will not respond to us or just myself…

…again?



Again Doron, trivial proclamations presented as if significant, meaningless representations considered as enlighten or enlightening, baseless assertions and claims, including misuse of terminology as well as gibberish in general being touted as insightful knowledge are by no means “new notions” on this forum.

Ride on head\hammer self referentor, the past is waiting for you.
 
Last edited:
It is obviously true since the term all is used on an interval of R members by Standard Math, and as we all know, there are no "gaps" between R members along the real-line, according to Standard Math.

The use of the word all doesn't guarantee they exist. As for the "no gaps" characteristic, that's what guarantees they don't exist.

Again, you have merely alleged something as true, but you cannot support the allegation. This is not surprising since what you allege is actually false.
 
Ride on head\hammer self referentor, the past is waiting for you.

“referentor”? Sounds like someone who introduces a referendum, “The passage of the referendum came as no surprise to the ‘referentor’”. Perhaps it is someone that refers renters to a landlord, “The apartment might have remained vacant if not for the services of a ‘referentor’”.
 
What exists or not exists?

Please explain this in details.

Why don't you just address the question rather than avoiding it. You need to provide some proof real numbers have immediate successors and immediate predecessors.
 
Why don't you just address the question rather than avoiding it. You need to provide some proof real numbers have immediate successors and immediate predecessors.
jsfisher, you say:

The use of the word all doesn't guarantee they exist. As for the "no gaps" characteristic, that's what guarantees they don't exist.

I say:

The use of all + the fact that distinct R members have "no gaps" (and both of them are used by Standard Math) guarantees (in the framework of Standard Math) that Y has an immediate predecessor, that cannot be found by using any particuler and finite case of pair of R members, as used in your "proof".

All you have to do is to show that your "proof" is not about any particular pair of R members, and only then your "proof" may become a proof.

It is clearly shown that your "proof" cannot avoid particular pair of R members as an inseparable part of it.

As a result, you have no proof.

If you don't agree with me, then you have to explicitly show why Y has no immediate predecessor by using a particular pair of R members as an inseparable part of your "proof".

EDIT:

Here is your "proof" once again:
jsfisher said:
Assume the set {X : X<Y} does have a largest element, Z.

For Z to be an element of the set, Z < Y.
Let h be any element of the interval (Z,Y).
By the construction of h, Z < h < Y.
Since h < Y, h is an element of the set {X : X<Y}.
Since Z < h, the assumption Z was the largest element of the set has been contradicted.

Therefore, the set {X : X<Y} does not have a largest element.

If one assumes that the set {X : X<Y} does have a largest element, Z, then one assumes the case [X,Z] or the case [Z,Y), that clearly can't be used to conclude anything about the non existence of the immediate predecessor of Y.

Furthermore, you write:
For Z to be an element of the set, Z < Y.
Let h be any element of the interval (Z,Y).

Jsfisher, if Z is the largest element of [X,Z] such that Z<Y, then there is no room for h between Z and Y, exactly because [X,Y) is an interval of all R members, and all R members have no room ("gap") for your h.

In that case, you actually have in your hand the exact value of the immediate predecessor of Y, but when you try to show it, you find yourself closed under the finite case of Z and Y of [Z,Y), which prevents from you to show the exact value of the immediate predecessor of Y of the non-finite collection of all R members of [X,Y) interval.

-------------------------------------------------------------

This case is equivalent (by analogy) to the wave\particle measurement problem of QM.

As long as you do not explicitly check the location of the wavicle, its existence is based on a superposition of all infinitely many locations of a given interval.

At the moment that you check it, only one finite case is found, but by using this particular finite case, you can't conclude anything about the superposition of all infinitely many locations of a given interval.
 
Last edited:
you have been advised many times to take up Math in the standard way. All you do is claim that "standard" math is wrong. You must first prove (even to yourself) that you actually know Math. For this you need a degree in Math - no shortcuts here.
 
you have been advised many times to take up Math in the standard way. All you do is claim that "standard" math is wrong. You must first prove (even to yourself) that you actually know Math. For this you need a degree in Math - no shortcuts here.

Adviced by people that explicitly show that they have no clue with what the deal with, even if thay have degress, so?

If you wish to say some meaningful thing, than please reply in details to http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4748547&postcount=3128 .
 
Last edited:
If you want to say something meaningful, get a degree in Math first. You will have no real dialog otherwise, and continue to waste other people's time as well as your own.
 
Have you ever given any thought to the fact that maybe you are wrong and actually do not know what you are dealing with? Assume this is true - what then?
 
If you want to say something meaningful, get a degree in Math first. You will have no real dialog otherwise, and continue to waste other people's time as well as your own.
Thank you for another example, which supports my claim that the current community of mathematicians is nothing but a religious sect, which avoids any research that does go with the line of its dogma.

You will get a degree (and become a priest of the dogma) only of you agree with the dogma.

I have a slogan for your community:

For degree, you must agree!
 
Last edited:
Have you ever given any thought to the fact that maybe you are wrong and actually do not know what you are dealing with? Assume this is true - what then?
The development of my work is based on a non-stop investigation and re-check of the validity of my notions.

It is fully opened to your criticism, as long as your criticism is given in details, exactly as I do to Standard Math, for example, in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4748547&postcount=3128 .

Now let me ask you the same question:

Have you ever given any thought to the fact that maybe you are wrong and actually do not know what you are dealing with? Assume this is true - what then?
 
Last edited:
This is an example of why you can not learn. You accept only what is convenient for you (for example you ignored my second post, where you were confronted with the possibility that you are wrong). Is this the only case where you refused to accept something you thought was wrong and afterwards after gaining more knowledge actually realized that it was right?
 
You have not answered my question, you avoided it. Your work is not developing, you simply make up other terms, your basic beliefs and agenda are the same.
 
By the way - you will get a degree if you demonstrate that you understand the material, and this is true for any academic domain.
 
A perfect example - you ignored the second part of the question...

On the contrary, I invited you use your knowledge and explicitly show that I am wrong, exactly as I do in the case of Standard Math.

If you refuse to do that, then we can conclude that your notions are nothing but beliefs that are not supported by any reasoning.
 
Last edited:
You did not answer to: "Is this the only case where you refused to accept something you thought was wrong and afterwards after gaining more knowledge actually realized that it was right?". I have no wish to address your posts as long as you refuse to get proper education.
 
jsfisher, you say:

The use of the word all doesn't guarantee they exist. As for the "no gaps" characteristic, that's what guarantees they don't exist.

I say:

The use of all + the fact that distinct R members have "no gaps" (and both of them are used by Standard Math) guarantees (in the framework of Standard Math) that Y has an immediate predecessor

Nope, that provides no guarantee. You need to provide proof of your allegation.

...that cannot be found by using any particuler and finite case of pair of R members, as used in your "proof".

Now, this part is just illogical and silly. If it exists, then we can give it a name and explore its properties. If not, well, then this is just another Doron fantasy.
 
Jsfisher, if Z is the largest element of [X,Z]...

Z is in fact the largest element of the interval [X,Z]. You are so busy trying to reinterpret what others write to cover your lack of understanding, you can't follow even simple sentences, can you?


And then there is this little gem:

...there is no room for h between Z and Y, exactly because [X,Y) is an interval of all R members, and all R members have no room ("gap") for your h.

You just guessed what no gaps means, didn't you? The reason I say this is because you got it completely backwards. Try again.
 
You just guessed what no gaps means, didn't you? The reason I say this is because you got it completely backwards. Try again.
Please provide the formal definition of "not gaps" (what is known as c)

Here is what we find at wikipadia:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Continuum_(mathematics)

The term the continuum sometimes denotes the real line. Somewhat more generally a continuum is a linearly ordered set of more than one element that is "densely ordered", i.e., between any two members there is another, and it lacks gaps in the sense that every non-empty subset with an upper bound has a least upper bound.
So, by using an example (based on a finite case) that between a finite amount of two distinct members, there is another member, Standard Math concludes (and I would say guesses) that this is also the case about an interval of the all non-finite elements.
 
Last edited:
wiki said:
… it lacks gaps in the sense that every non-empty subset with an upper bound has a least upper bound.
Every finite example of a non-empty subset with an upper bound has an arbitrary element that is greater than the smallest element of the finite subset, and smaller than Y, so?

Let us add "no gaps" to the hijacked words.


I continue to claim that you force the finite on the non-finite.


This time please reply in details to http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4748547&postcount=3128 .
 
Last edited:
Last edited:
Another example:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dense_order

In mathematics, a partial order ≤ on a set X is said to be dense (or dense-in-itself) if, for all x and y in X for which x < y, there is a z in X such that x < z < y.

The rational numbers with the ordinary ordering are a densely ordered set in this sense, as are the real numbers. On the other hand, the ordinary ordering on the integers is not dense.
Again, any given example of this claim, must be based on a finite case (x and y must be two (where two is a finite cardinal) distinct elements).

We can add "Dense" to the list of hijacked words.

Some claims that x z or y of the expression x < z < y have no particular values.

EDIT:

This claim does not change the fact that Standard Math uses a finite construction of different elements of X (x,z and y must be different of each other) in order to determine something about the non-finite case of X (where the term ALL is used on a non-finite collection of distinct elements).

So, again we find that Standard Math forces the finite on the non-finite (the non-finite+ALL term).
 
Last edited:
Another example:


Again, any given example of this claim, must be based on a finite case (x and y must be two (where two is a finite cardinal) distinct elements).
What else could they be? It wouldn't make a lot of sense if they had the same value.
We can add "Dense" to the list of hijacked words.
I can think of another application of the word 'Dense'...
Some claims that x z or y of the expression x < z < y have no particular values.
Would you like to complete that thought so that it actually says something?

This claim does not change the fact that we deal with a finite amount of different elements of X (x,z and y must be different of each other) in order to determine something about the non-finite case of X.
What?
 

Standard Math forces the finite on the non-finite (uses notions based on the finite, in order to determine things about the non-finite).

EDIT:

Again:

This claim does not change the fact that Standard Math uses a finite construction of different elements of X (x,z and y must be different of each other) in order to determine something about the non-finite case of X (where the term ALL is used on a non-finite collection of distinct elements).
 
Last edited:
Let us add "no gaps" to the hijacked words.

So, in addition to the phrase no gaps, we can add the word hijacked to the list of things you don't comprehend.

I continue to claim that you force the finite on the non-finite.

This time please reply in details to http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4748547&postcount=3128 .

You claim has already been addressed in detail. You started with a faulty premise (regarding the meaning of no gaps), so the premise and everything following it gets rejected.

While you may continue to claim anything you like, your claim continues to be without a base.


ETA:
So, upon what do you base your claim that every real number has an immediate predecessor and an immediate successor?
 
Last edited:
So, in addition to the phrase no gaps, we can add the word hijacked to the list of things you don't comprehend.



You claim has already been addressed in detail. You started with a faulty premise (regarding the meaning of no gaps), so the premise and everything following it gets rejected.

While you may continue to claim anything you like, your claim continues to be without a base.


ETA:
So, upon what do you base your claim that every real number has an immediate predecessor and an immediate successor?

The straightforward meaning of the word "no gaps" is "no interval".

In that case there is no room for z between x and y, if we deal with the non-finite collection of all members of set X.

Standard Math hijacked the words "all" and "no gaps", reversed their straightforward meaning, and used a finite case in order to determine things about the non-finite case.

Again, one can say that under Standard Math, The words "all", "no gap", "finite", "non-finite" etc. have different meaning than the original meaning, where these meanings, are derived from the axioms, definitions, terms, etc. of a formal language.

This claim does not hold in the cases I gave, because I clearly show in

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4748547&postcount=3128

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4748974&postcount=3150

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4749296&postcount=3154

excactly how the formal language forces notions taken form the finite and forces them on the non-finite.

Jsfisher, you have nothing but illusion about anything the is related to the non-finite.

You know it, and this is exactly the reason of why you do not reply in details to any one of the attached links.
 
Last edited:
I think I see your problem. 'gap' and 'interval' are not synonyms, at least not in this context.

They are synonyms as long as they are related to the same mathematical case, which deals with what exists (or not) between a collection of all non-finite ordered elements.


EDIT:

As for "no gap" in the case of x < z < y.

If there is really no gap, then x = z = y.

Since we deal with x < z < y, then "no gap" is meaningless in the real sense.
 
Last edited:
Status
Not open for further replies.

Back
Top Bottom