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Old 19th June 2010, 02:31 AM   #16
Join Date: Nov 2008
Posts: 4,032
Originally Posted by McHrozni View Post
Motivation, as in what, exactly? That Austria-Hungary issued utterly unreasonable demands to Serbia in 1914, then declared war when Serbia refused, leading to a chain reaction of defensive alliances being activated?
... after the throne successor was killed by a Serb, I would like to add. But I accept the notion of "chain reaction of defensive alliances being activated".

What else? Japanese invaded China in 1937 (fighting began six years earlier) in an effort for an "East Asian Co-Prosperity Sphere", aka Japanese empire to replace European and American ones in the Pacific area. This led into a broad war in the Pacific, which was inherently connected to the war in Europe and North Africa.
To be honoust, the actions of the Japanese before Pearl Harbor had escaped my perfidious Euro-centric mindset for a moment. But I nevertheless fail to see that the Japanese intended a world war (but you don't claim that either). But I also fail to see that the september 1939 rollback towards pre-WW1 situation in Poland (meaning Poland exit) was an intentional first step towards a world war.

Nazi false flag operation on the Polish border and a subsequent invasion, that also led to a chain reaction of defensive alliances. What's there to write, all of this is pretty much indisputable.
Was it really all 'false flag operations'? Is it really true that the Germans in Poland were not harassad?
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