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Old 19th June 2010, 02:43 AM   #18
McHrozni
Penultimate Amazing
 
Join Date: Jun 2009
Posts: 10,479
Originally Posted by 9/11-investigator View Post
... after the throne successor was killed by a Serb, I would like to add.
So? He wasn't an agent of a Serbian state, nor did he intend to benefit it. He was an activist for independent Bosnia.

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To be honoust, the actions of the Japanese before Pearl Harbor had escaped my perfidious Euro-centric mindset for a moment. But I nevertheless fail to see that the Japanese intended a world war (but you don't claim that either). But I also fail to see that the september 1939 rollback towards pre-WW1 situation in Poland (meaning Poland exit) was an intentional first step towards a world war.
Well, if you go by intent, Hitler didn't intend to fight with UK and France either, especially not already in 1939. The plan was to fight UK in 1945 or even later, if it even became necessary. German intentions were solely focused on expanding eastwards, with the war in the west being a necessary evil. Getting back at France might have been an afterthought, but a war with UK was intended to be avoided if at all possible.

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Was it really all 'false flag operations'?
Yes. Or are you perhaps claiming that the Poles really did send commandos on a cross-border raid to take some unimportant radio stations just to send some propaganda messages and that the Wehrmacht was just coincidentally prepared to invade at that same moment, whereas the Polish army wasn't mobilized for an adequate defense?

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Is it really true that the Germans in Poland were not harassad?
A straw man argument and a red herring in one. Bravo.

Harassment of individuals is a good reason for a major diplomatic dispute, but not war.

McHrozni
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