Deeper than primes

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No The Man, we are specifically talking about your inability to grasp that any given complex (and a non-empty set is a complex) can't reach the magnitude of existence of the non-local AND non-complex, which is not a set and not a member of a set (for example: 1-dimensional space, if its non-local property is considered).

If it is “not a set and not a member of a set” then cardinality simply does not apply. So stop using cardinality in reference to your “magnitude of existence” and define your “magnitude of existence” independent of cardinality.


Any member of a given set belongs to a complex and since the cardinality of a complex is smaller than the cardinality of the non-local AND non-complex (which, again, it is not a set) we do not need to show some missing member of some complex, because our comparison is between the concept of non-empty set, which is no more than a complex, and the concept of non-locality AND non-complex, which its exitence is stonger than any given complex. Your complex-only reasoning simply can't comprehend Emptiness, Fullness, (a), (b) or (b)______(b), as shown in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6564133&postcount=12348.

As you assert above your “non-local AND non-complex, which is not a set and not a member of a set” it has no cardinality.


Are you claiming that you are unable to get the simple notion that a line (if its non-local property is considered) is not a set and not a member of a set, but it is a non-local and non-complex mathematical object?

Nope, I asked a question. Can you answer it or not?


No The Man, you simply can't get the simple fact that a segment can't be reduced into a point exactly because of the existence of incomplete collection of smaller segments upon infinitely many scale levels, where 0.000…1 is the ever smaller AND > 0 segement. No segment is smaller than itself exactly because the collection of ever smaller segments is infinite, and no one of its members is a point.

Once again who ever claimed that a segment could be reduced to a zero dimensional point? Stop simply trying to posit asspects your own failed reasoning onto others. Once again that it is “smaller than any strict or non-strict value > 0 that exists under [base 10] AND it is also > 0” is your assertion and it simply asserts that it is smaller than it self. Now you could assert that it is “smaller than any strict or” any other “non-strict value > 0 that exists under [base 10] AND it is also > 0”, which would not be claiming that it is smaller than itself, but still claiming that it is your smallest segment.

As a result 0.999…[base 10] < 1 by the ever smaller segment 0.000…1[base 10] of the infinite (and therefore incomplete) collection of segments.

Again show what member of that infinite collection is not a member of that infinite collection, otherwise it is complete.

As explained to you before The Man, your fundamental inability to distinguish between a complex thing like collection and a non-complex thing like the non-locality of 1-dimansional space, put you under the category of meaningless replies about this interesting subject.

As explained to you before Doron cardinality specifically refers to the size sets, as such your use of cardinality in reference to your “magnitude of existence” and your “non-complex thing like the non-locality of 1-dimansional space” remains simply meaningless.

Now we see that you can't distinguish between total connectivity ( which is at least 1-dimensional space self state, notated as (a) ) and connectivity under complex (a) AND (b).

Also you do not distinguish between total isolation ( which is at least 0-dimensional space self state, notated as (b) ) and isolation under complex (a) AND (b).


Once again you can't distinguish between the complex and the non-complex.

Once again you can’t distinguish between cardinality and your fantasy “magnitude of existence”

No The Man, a line is not a set, not a member of a set (if its non-local property is considered), a collection or any other complex thing.

Then it has no cardinality. Once again please define your “magnitude of existence” independent of cardinality.

Wrong once again, for example 1-dimensional space exists whether there are 0-dimansional spaces or segments along it, or not.

As already explained to you the “1” in “1-dimensional” specifically refers to the number of coordinates needed to define a point in that space. If you are going to try to define your own “dimensionality” without points then your are going to need something to quantify that dimensionality. So please define your “dimensionality” without points and how you quantify that “dimensionality”

The Man, your two last posts trivially demonstrate that you simply have no clue of what you are trying to criticize.

Doron your continuing self-inconsistent assertions simply demonstrate that you have no clue what you are trying to claim with you “OM”.


As I said, your reasoning is limited to Quantity, by avoiding any reasoning which deals with the foundation that enables Quantity, in the first place.

As already explained to your Doron what “enables Quantity” in the case of cardinality is the members (or more specifically the size) of the set being consider

The amount of a given collection is defined by the linkage among Non-locality and Locality.
No Doron it is defined by the set, specifically what does and does not constitute a member of that set, but of course that has been explained to you before as well.

The simplest result (without a loss of generality) of this linkage is done between 1-dimensional space, known as Line, and 0-dimensional spaces, known as Points.

One of the notations of Non-locality is done by "{" and "}", where the cardinality is determined by the number of the distinct objects that are defined between "{" and "}" (and in this post we shell use the traditional notion of the concept of Cardinality).

This notion is equivalent to the amount of the objects that are defined along a 1-dimensional space, as follows:

If there are no objects along the 1-dimensional space, than the cardinality is 0.

If there are objects along the 1-dimensional space, then the cardinality is the number of distinct objects along the 1-dimensional space.

Once again Doron a “1-dimensional space” is defined by the coordinates required to locate a point within that space. No points no dimension. So please define your “dimensionality” and specifically how you quantify it without points.


Be aware of the following facts:

Be aware that your ridiculous, self contradictory and generally contradictory claims do no constitute facts.

1) "{" "}" or ...________... exists (or used, if you wish) even if there are no objects (the cardinality is 0).


Remember Doron.

“The amount of a given collection is defined by the linkage among Non-locality and Locality”

And

“The simplest result (without a loss of generality) of this linkage is done between 1-dimensional space, known as Line, and 0-dimensional spaces, known as Points.”

The empty set has neither points nor a line. So much for your “linkage” “done between 1-dimensional space, known as Line, and 0-dimensional spaces, known as Points.” defining the “amount of a given collection”



2) Any cardinality > 0 is a result of the linkage between "{" "}" or ...________..., where "{" "}" or ...________... is the non-local property, which enables the membership between distinct objects that are local w.r.t "{" "}" or ...________... (they belong XOR not belong to "{" "}" or ...________...), and this membership is exactly the non-local property of "{" "}" or ...________... w.r.t to the distinct objects, which enables the existence of non-empty collections, and the value of the Cardinality of non-empty collections.

No Doron any cardinality, including zero, is dependent only on the size of the defined set.

Oh and “belong XOR not belong” is still always FALSE.

3) It is a simple fact that any given amount of distinct objects that are determined by the linkage between the distinct objects and "{" "}" or ...________..., does not have the non-local property of "{" "}" or ...________... w.r.t the collection of such objects, because being non-local is logically be at AND beyond the collected objects (and in this case the cardinality of the non-local is greater than the cardinality of the collected objects), whether "beyond" enables the infinite interpolation or infinite extrapolation of a given collection of distinct objects w.r.t "{" "}" or ...________...

Then your “"{" "}" or ...________..., “ simply do not have that “non-local property” you claim otherwise your “distinct objects and "{" "}" or ...________..., “ would have that property as it includes both your “distinct objects and” your “ "{" "}" or ...________..., “


Are you claiming that you lose your “non-local property” of your “"{" "}" or ...________..., “ in your “linkage between the distinct objects and "{" "}" or ...________..., “?
 
EDIT:


My answer is about the traditional and the non-traditional definition of Cardinality.

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First let's reply to your last comments, which are related to my non-traditional definition of Cardinality:

The non-traditional definition of Cardinality:

Cardinality is the magnitude of existence of a given thing, which has at least the weakest or strongest magnitude of existence, as follows:

a) Emptiness, which is defined as "that has no predecessor", has cardinality 0, which is the weakest cardinality.

b) Fullness, which is defined as "that has no successor", has cardinality , which is the strongest cardinality.

The strongest cardinality is stronger than any other given cardinality, such that any object that has the strongest cardinality, is at and beyond any existing thing that is compared to it (Emptiness, which has cardinality 0, is excluded because it is not an existing thing).

Non-locality and Locality are the result of the comparison between that has the strongest cardinality, with that does (or do) not has (or have) the strongest cardinality (Emptiness, which has cardinality 0, is excluded because it is not an existing thing).

Under this comparison (or linkage, if you will) among existing things; that has the strongest cardinality is simultaneously at AND beyond any existing thing (or collection of existing things) that does (or do) not have cardinality .

1-dimensional space is the smallest existing thing that has cardinality .

0-dimensional space is the smallest existing thing that has cardinality > 0, such that 0-dimensional space is the immediate successor of Emptiness, if Cardinality is the magnitude of existence of a given thing.

Because 1-dimensional space and 0-dimesional space are both existing things, then (as mentioned above) 1-dimesional space enables to be simultaneously at AND beyond any given 0-dimesional space along it, where any given 0-dimensional space along 1-dimensional space, can't be simultaneously at AND beyond 1-dimentional space.

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Second, let's reply to your last comments, which are related to the traditional definition of Cardinality:

The traditional definition of Cardinality:

Cardinality is the number of distinct objects that belongs to an existing thing, called a set.

a) Emptiness, is the absence of any distinct objects of an existing set.

b) Fullness, is an undefined concept under the traditional notion of Set.

I claim that Fullness is used by mathematicians as an essential property of Set, even if it is not formally defined by them, as follows:

1) The fact that a set is an existing thing even if it does not have members, is not formalized by the traditional mathematicians, and as a result the cardinality of a set is defined only as the number of the distinct members, that belongs to a given existing set.

2) The existence of a set beyond the existence of its members is exactly the non-local property (which is not formalized by the traditional mathematicians) of the concept of set, which is not influenced by the number of the distinct members that are related to it.

3) Actually without the existence of a set beyond its members (which can be shown right from the existence of the empty set beyond Emptiness), there is no way to formally define any collection.

4) By understanding this fundamental fact, there is a way to formalize the existence of a set, such that it exists beyond any given collection of distinct members, which are related to it.

5) By understanding (1),(2),(3),(4), one defines the existence of a set beyond its members, as the non-local property of a set w.r.t its members, where the collection of any non-emply set is local w.r.t the existence of the set.

6) (5) is logically demonstrated by the inaccessibility of any amount of distinct objects to be beyond "{" and "}" , which is equivalent to the inability of any amount of points or segments to be beyond 1-dimensional space.

1-dimensional space exists beyond of any amount of points or segments along it, exactly as the empty set exists beyond the existence of members.

But traditional Math never formalized this fundamental fact, and as a result it lives under the illusion that there is such a thing like infinite AND complete collection of distinct objects.

Furthermore, according to Traditional Math one has to show some missing member of a given infinite collection of distinct members, in order to prove that such a collection is incomplete.

By doing that, Traditional Math ignores the fact that the concept of Set (and it is shown right from the existence of the empty set beyond its "members") exists beyond the existence of any given collection, and as a result any given collection is incomplete w.r.t the existence of the concept of Set.

Some claims that the name and cardinality of a given set is defined by the property and amount of its members, but it does not change the fundamental fact that a set exists beyond its members, no matter what cardinality or name are given to it.

Place holder X exists no matter what name or cardinality is given to it, and this is a fundamental fact of any generalization of some mathematical framework, which you, The Man, and other traditional thinkers, simply can't comprehend.


In other words, the definition of Set is not formally satisfied, if Non-locaily\Locality linkage is not defined.
 
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The Man said:
If it is “not a set and not a member of a set” then cardinality simply does not apply.

The Man, since your definition of Cardinality refers to the amount of objects, without the understanding of how multiplicity (the "s" at the end of a word like "objects") is possible in the first place, you simply have nothing to say about Cardinality, or what enables this concept.

The traditional definition about "the size of a set" is misleading because it ignores the fundamental fact of the existence of the concept of Set beyond the number of its members, exactly as we see right in the case of the Empty set, which is an existing thing that has no members.

As long as this misleading notion stands at the basis of Set Theory, this theory is invalid.

The Man said:
As already explained to you the “1” in “1-dimensional” specifically refers to the number of coordinates needed to define a point in that space.
Again you demonstrate your limited reasoning, which gets things only in terms of points, and the number of names that are related to them.

This narrow reasoning has no chance to be developed into the level that enables to distinguish between the complex and the non-complex, where in the case of "1-dimensional space", the "1" defines the the smallest existing thing that has cardinality , which is the cardinality of Non-locality, such that anything that has this cardinality can be simultaneously at AND beyond any limited domain.

The Man said:
If you are going to try to define your own “dimensionality” without points then your are going to need something to quantify that dimensionality. So please define your “dimensionality” without points and how you quantify that “dimensionality”
It is already done, but since you are unable to grasp Emptiness, Fullness Locality, Non-locality etc…, you simply unable to distinguish between the non-complex ( for example: ( 2(),0() ) and the complex ( for example: ( 2(0(x,y)) ) ) no matter how many times it is explained to you.

The Man said:
The empty set has neither points nor a line.
Yet, it is an existing thing, even it does not have any members (which is a fact that you do not understand its influence on Set Theory and the Mathmatical Science).

The Man said:
Once again who ever claimed that a segment could be reduced to a zero dimensional point?
If one claims that the sum of converges lengths has the exact value of a given limit, then one actually claims that a given line segment is reducible into a point.

Moreover, if one claims that 1-dimensioanel space is completely covered by a collection of 0-dimensional spaces, then one actually claims that 1-dimensional space is actually a collection 0-dimensional spaces. But by using this claim (which is definitely your claim, The Man) a line segment is reducible into a single 0-dimensional space, because 1-dimensional space actually does not exist.

In other words, The Man, you claim things al along this thread, without the results that are derived from them.

The Man said:
Are you claiming that you lose your “non-local property” of your “"{" "}" or ...________..., “ in your “linkage between the distinct objects and "{" "}" or ...________..., “?
Not at all.

I explicitly say that the cardinality of the non-local is greater than the cardinality of any given collection.

The Man said:
Remember Doron.

“The amount of a given collection is defined by the linkage among Non-locality and Locality”
Let me correct it for you. If Cardinality is the number of distinct objects of a given set, then the cardinality of a non-empty set is defined by the linkage among Non-locality and Locality.
 
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EDIT:


My answer is about the traditional and the non-traditional definition of Cardinality.

------

First let's reply to your last comments, which are related to my non-traditional definition of Cardinality:

The non-traditional definition of Cardinality:

Cardinality is the magnitude of existence of a given thing, which has at least the weakest or strongest magnitude of existence, as follows:

a) Emptiness, which is defined as "that has no predecessor", has cardinality 0, which is the weakest cardinality.

b) Fullness, which is defined as "that has no successor", has cardinality , which is the strongest cardinality.

The strongest cardinality is stronger than any other given cardinality, such that any object that has the strongest cardinality, is at and beyond any existing thing that is compared to it (Emptiness, which has cardinality 0, is excluded because it is not an existing thing).

Non-locality and Locality are the result of the comparison between that has the strongest cardinality, with that does (or do) not has (or have) the strongest cardinality (Emptiness, which has cardinality 0, is excluded because it is not an existing thing).

Under this comparison (or linkage, if you will) among existing things; that has the strongest cardinality is simultaneously at AND beyond any existing thing (or collection of existing things) that does (or do) not have cardinality .

1-dimensional space is the smallest existing thing that has cardinality .

0-dimensional space is the smallest existing thing that has cardinality > 0, such that 0-dimensional space is the immediate successor of Emptiness, if Cardinality is the magnitude of existence of a given thing.

Because 1-dimensional space and 0-dimesional space are both existing things, then (as mentioned above) 1-dimesional space enables to be simultaneously at AND beyond any given 0-dimesional space along it, where any given 0-dimensional space along 1-dimensional space, can't be simultaneously at AND beyond 1-dimentional space.

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Once again Doron cardinality specifically deals with the size of sets and if your not referring to sets then your not referring to cardinality. So once again please define your “magnitude of existence” independent of cardinality. You can define your “magnitude of existence” any way you want, but if you are going to refer to the concept of cardinality then you are referring to the size of sets.

What exactly is infinite about your “1-dimensional space” space?

Based on your so called “definition” above your “magnitude of existence” isn’t related to anything quantitative so the “magnitude” of your “magnitude of existence” is evidently something you just pull out of your arse.





Second, let's reply to your last comments, which are related to the traditional definition of Cardinality:

The traditional definition of Cardinality:

Cardinality is the number of distinct objects that belongs to an existing thing, called a set.

a) Emptiness, is the absence of any distinct objects of an existing set.

b) Fullness, is an undefined concept under the traditional notion of Set.

Neither of those assertions are part of the definition of cardinality. Stop simply trying to posit aspects of your own failed reasoning onto others.


I claim that Fullness is used by mathematicians as an essential property of Set, even if it is not formally defined by them, as follows:


Your claim is false.

1) The fact that a set is an existing thing even if it does not have members, is not formalized by the traditional mathematicians, and as a result the cardinality of a set is defined only as the number of the distinct members, that belongs to a given existing set.

The empty set is an axiom of some set theories.



2) The existence of a set beyond the existence of its members is exactly the non-local property (which is not formalized by the traditional mathematicians) of the concept of set, which is not influenced by the number of the distinct members that are related to it.


What “The existence of a set beyond the existence of its members” “is not influenced by the number of the distinct members that are related to it”? You really do need to start checking the self-consistency of your assertions Doron.

3) Actually without the existence of a set beyond its members (which can be shown right from the existence of the empty set beyond Emptiness), there is no way to formally define any collection.

“the empty set beyond Emptiness”? So now your empty set isn’t, well, empty? What do you mean by “beyond Emptiness”?




4) By understanding this fundamental fact, there is a way to formalize the existence of a set, such that it exists beyond any given collection of distinct members, which are related to it.

Doron a set is a collection of it’s defined members, so anything you might fantasies “beyond” that is simply not the same defined set.

5) By understanding (1),(2),(3),(4), one defines the existence of a set beyond its members, as the non-local property of a set w.r.t its members, where the collection of any non-emply set is local w.r.t the existence of the set.

See above

6) (5) is logically demonstrated by the inaccessibility of any amount of distinct objects to be beyond "{" and "}" , which is equivalent to the inability of any amount of points or segments to be beyond 1-dimensional space.



Well of course the members of a set are not “beyond” that set, that what makes them members of that set. However the point 5 is “beyond” the one dimentional space of the interval [1,5) in the reals exactly because it is not a member of the set representing that interval.

1-dimensional space exists beyond of any amount of points or segments along it, exactly as the empty set exists beyond the existence of members.

Nope.

Though evidently simple mathematics and geometry simply exist well “beyond” your understanding.

Please define any location in a one dimensional space that is “beyond” a location in that one dimensional space.

But traditional Math never formalized this fundamental fact, and as a result it lives under the illusion that there is such a thing like infinite AND complete collection of distinct objects.

Again show what member of such an infinite collection is not a member of that infinite collection such that it is incomplete.

Furthermore, according to Traditional Math one has to show some missing member of a given infinite collection of distinct members, in order to prove that such a collection is incomplete.

Actually Doron that is just a result meaning of “incomplete”, that something is missing. If nothing is missing then it is in fact complete.

By doing that, Traditional Math ignores the fact that the concept of Set (and it is shown right from the existence of the empty set beyond its "members") exists beyond the existence of any given collection, and as a result any given collection is incomplete w.r.t the existence of the concept of Set.

Once again Doron the empty set is defined by exactly its lack of members, but evidently that is still just beyond you.

The fact that the concept of a set or collection is not limited to any one set or collection (including the empty set) still does not make any set or collection incomplete. In fact the very concept of set or collection makes any abstract set or collection complete as it specifically has and is limited to all of its members.

Some claims that the name and cardinality of a given set is defined by the property and amount of its members, but it does not change the fundamental fact that a set exists beyond its members, no matter what cardinality or name are given to it.

Again Doron what member of a set is not a member of that set?


Place holder X exists no matter what name or cardinality is given to it, and this is a fundamental fact of any generalization of some mathematical framework, which you, The Man, and other traditional thinkers, simply can't comprehend.

Oh waiter, can I get some dressing on this word salad?



In other words, the definition of Set is not formally satisfied, if Non-locaily\Locality linkage is not defined.

As you can’t define your “Non-locaily\Locality linkage” formally, that claim is demonstrably false.
 
The Man said:
“the empty set beyond Emptiness”? So now your empty set isn’t, well, empty? What do you mean by “beyond Emptiness”?
The Man, please answer only by yes or no to the following question:

The Man, do you claim that the empty set and emptiness is the same?
 
Again show what member of that infinite collection is not a member of that infinite collection, otherwise it is complete.
He actually did and was right about it. If the member of the infinite collection is a number expressed as 0.999..., for example, then the traditional math showed with "varying degrees of rigor" that numbers whose fractional part comprises a single infinitely self-repeating digit don't exist.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999...
 
He actually did and was right about it. If the member of the infinite collection is a number expressed as 0.999..., for example, then the traditional math showed with "varying degrees of rigor" that numbers whose fractional part comprises a single infinitely self-repeating digit don't exist.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999...
0.999...[base 10] is a numral that represents number 1, according to Traditional Math.


Let us take again the example of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+…

________________________________________________________________ 1/2 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/4 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/8 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/16 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/32 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/64 + ...

Traditional Math does not understand that if the sum of infinitely many added and convergent segments = 1, then there are only finitely many Blue\Red Red\Blue cases.
 
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Let us correct it:
  • Number 2 (notated as "2") and number 2 as a member of a singleton set (notated as "{2}") is not the same expression.
So, you are again confirming that, according to you, 2 is not a member of the set {2}.

  • Set {{a},{b}} is the result of the union between set {{a}} and set {{b}}, where the members of {{a},{b}} are the members of set {{a}} and set {{b}}.
So, you reconfirm you claim while demonstrating you blunder. Neither {{a}} nor {{b}} are members of the set {{a},{b}}.

  • From a structural point of view 1/4 is a single AND strict location along segment 0_______1, where 0.25[base 10] is a non-single AND strict location along 0_______1.
So, you are again confirming that, according to you, 1/4 is different from 0.25.

  • A comparison between objects of one or more collections is based on the same principle, which is the linkage between non-locality and locality.
So, you are again confirming that, according to you, sets, maps, and functions are all the same thing.

  • Any mathematical branch that does not deal with the non-finite is weaker than any mathematical branch that deals with the non-finite.
What has this to do with Geometry? Are you claiming (now) that Geometry does not have a concept of 'infinite'?

  • In this philosophical thread, "only if" and "if and only if" are not always used by their formal mathematical meaning.
Certainly for any post by you, independent of the forum in which you place it, mathematical concepts are divorced from their formal meaning.

  • The concept of Number under Mathematics is understood according to its type. The type can be Natural number, Whole number, Rational number, Algebraic number, Irrational number, Transcendental number, Complex number, p-adic number etc ...

That's great, but are you confirming or retracting your claim?

You have also claimed the Cantor Set contains only one point. Do you stand by that statement?
 
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Let me be clearer about my argument against 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1

________________________________.________________________________ 1/2 +

________________________________________________.________________ 1/4 +

________________________________________________________.________ 1/8 +

____________________________________________________________.____ 1/16 +

______________________________________________________________.__ 1/32 +

_______________________________________________________________._ 1/64 + ...

If 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, as Traditional Math claims, then the most right (Red or Blue) segment
must be reduced into a single 0-dimensional space.

In this case we get these results:

1) 1-dimensional space is reducible into 0-dimesional space, or in other words, 1-dimensional space does not exist, and all we have is an infinite collection of 0-dimensional spaces.

2) The number of Blue\Red Red\Blue collection of segments, is a finite collection, because the transition form a collection of a single 0-dimensional space into a collection of more than a single 0-dimensional space and vice versa, has no intermediate degrees of transitions (the transition from cardinality 1 to cardinality 2 and vice versa, has no intermediate degrees of transitions).

In general, Traditional Math's reasoning fails to deal with the one-to-many many-to-one transition, as shown by this case without a loss of generality.
 
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...If 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, as Traditional Math claims, then the most right (Red or Blue) segment
must be reduced into a single 0-dimensional space.

You continue to misrepresent what is meant by such a summation. You have been corrected many, many times, yet you persist. Are you convinced that by the sheer power of repetition you will somehow morph your bogus statement into a true one?


At any rate, since your premise is false, your conclusions have no basis. The fact your inferences are also faulty only embellishes your spectacular failing.
 
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The Man, since your definition of Cardinality refers to the amount of objects, without the understanding of how multiplicity (the "s" at the end of a word like "objects") is possible in the first place, you simply have nothing to say about Cardinality, or what enables this concept.

If your “magnitude of existence” does not specifically involve the size of set it simply does not involve cardinality, regardless of how desperately you apparently want to associative your “magnitude of existence” with cardinality.

The traditional definition about "the size of a set" is misleading because it ignores the fundamental fact of the existence of the concept of Set beyond the number of its members, exactly as we see right in the case of the Empty set, which is an existing thing that has no members.

Once again Doron the ignorance remains completely yours.

As long as this misleading notion stands at the basis of Set Theory, this theory is invalid.

Doron the only “misleading” is your own and as such it is simply your notion that is invalid

Again you demonstrate your limited reasoning, which gets things only in terms of points, and the number of names that are related to them.

I asked you to define your dimensionality without points, specifically how it is quantified, so far you have not even attempted to do so.

This narrow reasoning has no chance to be developed into the level that enables to distinguish between the complex and the non-complex, where in the case of "1-dimensional space", the "1" defines the the smallest existing thing that has cardinality , which is the cardinality of Non-locality, such that anything that has this cardinality can be simultaneously at AND beyond any limited domain.

So the “1” of your "1-dimensional space" is just another quantity you pull out of your arse, how surprising.

It is already done, but since you are unable to grasp Emptiness, Fullness Locality, Non-locality etc…, you simply unable to distinguish between the non-complex ( for example: ( 2(),0() ) and the complex ( for example: ( 2(0(x,y)) ) ) no matter how many times it is explained to you.

Your nonsense notations and labels do nothing to quantify your notion of “dimensionality”, as such your “"1-dimensional space" might as well be a ‘blue-dimensional space’ or ‘apple-dimensional space’ it is just a name you use to evidently mislead people into considering that there is actually something quantifiable about your concept of “dimensionality”.

Yet, it is an existing thing, even it does not have any members (which is a fact that you do not understand its influence on Set Theory and the Mathmatical Science).

Once again the fact that it “does not have any members” is exactly what makes it the, well, empty set and as I said before it is an axiom of some set theories.


If one claims that the sum of converges lengths has the exact value of a given limit, then one actually claims that a given line segment is reducible into a point.

Nope, we have been over this before Doron, in order for the current segment being summed to be zero length (a point) the previous sum must already have reached the limit

Moreover, if one claims that 1-dimensioanel space is completely covered by a collection of 0-dimensional spaces, then one actually claims that 1-dimensional space is actually a collection 0-dimensional spaces. But by using this claim (which is definitely your claim, The Man) a line segment is reducible into a single 0-dimensional space, because 1-dimensional space actually does not exist.

Nope those are once again only your deliberately misleading claims that you try to ascribe to others. Again please show any location in a 1-dimensional space that can not be covered by points. It is the fact there a point is zero dimensional that insures it can cover every and any location in a one dimensional space. Once again it only takes two points to define a one dimensional space and one can always fit an infinite number of other points between those two.

In other words, The Man, you claim things al along this thread, without the results that are derived from them.

No Doron you just like to make ridiculous claims and then simply try to ascribe them to others, in fact you seem rather compulsive about it. Have you ever consider getting professional help as you seem unable to resist the compulsion?

Not at all.

So then your ‘linked’ complex still has that “non-local property” of your “"{" "}" or ...________..., “, in spite of what you claimed before?


I explicitly say that the cardinality of the non-local is greater than the cardinality of any given collection.

And you are explicitly wrong since cardinality is specifically related to the size of a collection. If your “non-local is” not a collection then cardinality simply does not apply.

Let me correct it for you. If Cardinality is the number of distinct objects of a given set, then the cardinality of a non-empty set is defined by the linkage among Non-locality and Locality.

Nope still wrong, let me correct it for you. “If Cardinality is the number of distinct objects of a given set” then any cardinality (including that of the empty set) “is the number of distinct objects of a given set”.

Are you claiming that your “linkage among Non-locality and Locality” fails for the empty set?


The Man, please answer only by yes or no to the following question:

The Man, do you claim that the empty set and emptiness is the same?

No.
 
EDIT:

The Man said:
And you are explicitly wrong since cardinality is specifically related to the size of a collection.
You are using a concept like collection, without understanding its existence.


Are you claiming that your “linkage among Non-locality and Locality” fails for the empty set?
No, I am claiming that the traditional notion of Cardinality as the number of objects of a given set, can't distinguish between the weakest existing thing (a point), which has cardinality 1, and the minimal form of the strongest existing thing (a line), which its existence is stronger than any collection of objects along it, and its cardinality is .

Moreover, the traditional notion of Cardinality can't deal directly with Emptiness as the level of existence that has Cardinality 0, and it does it indirectly by using an existing thing like The Empty set in order to define cardinality 0.

This is a fundamental conceptual mistake that Organic Mathematics fixes, and this correction is important for further development of The Mathematical Science.

Only the linkage between that has cardinality and that has cardinality 1 enables to define cardinalities which are > 1 AND < , where that has cardinality 1 is local w.r.t that has cardinality (where Locality is the property of being at most simultaneously at one and only one location w.r.t to that has cardinality ), and that has cardinality is non-local w.r.t that has cardinality 1 (where Non-locality is the property of being at least simultaneously at and beyond the location w.r.t to that has cardinality 1).

doronshadmi said:
The Man, please answer only by yes or no to the following question:

The Man, do you claim that the empty set and emptiness is the same?

No.
In that case you have no problem to distinguish between the definition of The Empty set, which is based on the fact that an existing thing has no sub-existing things, and the fact that The Empty set is an existing thing, and therefore its existence is beyond Emptiness.

Yet, as written above, this distinction is wrongly interpreted and used by Traditional Mathematics, because the traditional notion of Cardinality can't deal directly with Emptiness as the level of existence that has Cardinality 0, and it does it indirectly by using an existing thing like The Empty set in order to define cardinality 0, which is a fundamental conceptual mistake.
 
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The Man said:
Nope, we have been over this before Doron, in order for the current segment being summed to be zero length (a point) the previous sum must already have reached the limit
The Man, do you really don't get that if the previous sum already have reached the limit, then there is no such a thing like "the current segment" (where a segment is defined as an object that its length > 0)?

"the current segment being summed to be zero length" is an utter nonsense.
 
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I am claiming that the traditional notion of Cardinality as the number of objects of a given set, can't distinguish between...

I see you continue to struggle to disprove a definition.

I have noticed that cardinality doesn't distinguish between blue and green. Does that add to you disproof of the definition? (Oh! Dear! OM doesn't either! We are all doomed!!!!)

You persist on this fool's errand, Doron. Give it up. You want something different? Great! Define something different. Knock yourself out. But please stop all this verbal idiocy you spew just because you don't understand basic Mathematics.
 
No, I am claiming that the traditional notion of Cardinality as the number of objects of a given set, can't distinguish between the weakest existing thing (a point), which has cardinality 1, and the minimal form of the strongest existing thing (a line), which its existence is stronger than any collection of objects along it, and its cardinality is .

Once again you are simply wrong. A set containing a point has a cardinality of one a set containing a line has a cardinality of one, while a set containing all the points of that line has an infinite cardinality. Again if you are not referring to sets then cardinality simply is not applicable.

I’ll ask again, what exactly is infinite about your “line”?

Moreover the traditional notion of Cardinality can't deal directly with Emptiness as the level of existence that has Cardinality 0, and it does it indirectly by using an existing thing like The Empty set in order to define cardinality 0.

Your claim is simply false. The empty set is empty by definition and its cardinality is a direct result of the empty set being, well, empty. The only things indirect are you and your nonsense assertions.

This is a fundamental conceptual mistake that Organic Mathematics fixes, and this correction is important for further development of the mathematical science.

The mistake is entirely yours, and rather than fixing your own mistake (and actually learning some mathematics) you have invented some fantasy world so you can revel in your own, apparently deliberate, mistakes.


Only the linkage between that has cardinality and that has cardinality 1 enables to define cardinalities which are > 1 AND < , where that has cardinality 1 is local w.r.t that has cardinality (where Locality is the property of being at most simultaneously at one and only one location w.r.t to that has cardinality ), and that has cardinality is non-local w.r.t that has cardinality 1 (where Non-locality is the property of being at least simultaneously at and beyond the location w.r.t to that has cardinality 1).

No Doron once again the definition of cardinality “enables to define” all, well, cardinalities including 0, 1 and “∞”. However since you don’t actually use cardinality or its definition, it has just become another label or buzz word for you to use so you can revel in your own, apparently deliberate, mistakes.



In that case you have no problem to distinguish between the definition of The Empty set, which is based on the fact that an existing thing has no sub-existing things, and the fact that The Empty set is an existing thing, and therefore its existence is beyond Emptiness.

Could you put that in English please?

Doron the empty set and emptiness are both abstract concepts and only ‘exist’ as such. So I would certainly not claim that the “existence” of the empty set is “beyond Emptiness”. In fact the empty set is a particular concept of Emptiness (one related specifically to a set) so I might stipulate that the concept of emptiness is more general or more broadly applicable than the concept of the empty set. Also the empty set is strictly limited to emptiness, otherwise it wouldn’t be, well, empty.

Perhaps you need to explain exactly what you mean by “beyond” and specifically “beyond Emptiness”. Though I have little hope of your explanation being self-consistent, generally consistent or meaningful in any way other than to just help you so you can revel in your own, apparently deliberate, mistakes.
 
I see you continue to struggle to disprove a definition.

I have noticed that cardinality doesn't distinguish between blue and green. Does that add to you disproof of the definition? (Oh! Dear! OM doesn't either! We are all doomed!!!!)

You persist on this fool's errand, Doron. Give it up. You want something different? Great! Define something different. Knock yourself out. But please stop all this verbal idiocy you spew just because you don't understand basic Mathematics.
jsfisher, Traditional Math uses Cardinality as the size of a given collection, without understanding its existence.
 
The Man, do you really don't get that if the previous sum already have reached the limit, then there is no such a thing like "the current segment" (where a segment is defined as an object that its length > 0)?

Well look who finally caught up. So are you done with your ridiculous claim that “a given line segment is reducible into a point.”?

"the current segment being summed to be zero length" is an utter nonsense.

It’s your utter nonsense Doron, but you may just be catching on to that fact now.
 
The Man said:
And you are explicitly wrong since cardinality is specifically related to the size of a collection.
You are using a concept like collection, without the understanding of its existence.


The Man said:
Once again you are simply wrong. A set containing a point has a cardinality of one
The Man said:
Doron the empty set and emptiness are both abstract concepts and only ‘exist’ as such.
The Empty set, which is an existing thing (even if this existence is interpreted by you as an abstraction) has an existence that is greater than Emptiness (even if Emptiness is interpreted by you as an abstraction).

Traditional Math ignores this abstract fact, and uses an abstract existing thing, in order to indirectly define the cardinality of Emptiness (which is an abstraction that its cardinality is smaller than the cardinality of an existing abstraction like the empty set).

Since you prefer to distinguish between the abstract and the non-abstract, I'll follow your notion and claim that this indirect use of abstract concepts is a fundamental abstract conceptual mistake.

Organic Mathematics defines Cardinality directly, and by this direct approach, Emptiness has Cardinality 0 and The Empty set has Cardinality 1, which is equivalent to the cardinality of a point, because both of them are the minimal abstract existence.

|| = 0

|{}| = |.| = 1

|{{}}|=|{}{}| = |..| = 2

|{{{}}}|=|{}{}{}| = |…| = 3

etc …

|____| = where ____ is the minimal abstract existing thing that its cardinality is greater (beyond) than any collection, whether the collection is a set or a multiset.

Moreover, any cardinality > 1 is the result of . (or "{""}") ___ linkage, such that:

|{{}}|=|{}{}| = |..| = 2

|{{{}}}|=|{}{}{}| = || = 3

etc …
 
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Well look who finally caught up. So are you done with your ridiculous claim that “a given line segment is reducible into a point.”?



It’s your utter nonsense Doron, but you may just be catching on to that fact now.
The utter nonsense is yours, because you are unable to get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6575426&postcount=12371 , which clearly demonstrates this utter nonsense of yours about the sum of convergent lengths, which is = to a given limit.

You are a complete ignorant about this fine subject, because you do not understand the results of your own claims.
 
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The utter nonsense is yours, because you are unable to get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6575426&postcount=12371 , which clearly demonstrates this utter nonsense of yours about the sum of convergent lengths, which is = to a given limit.

You are a complete ignorant about this fine subject, because you do not understand the results of your own claims.


Referring back to a post where you, Doron, re-demonstrate your lack of understanding of Mathematics doesn't support your claim. The only thing clearly demonstrated in that post is your obstinate insistence on misrepresentation.
 
EDIT:

Let me be clearer about my argument against 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1
That's not the main argument, coz that series approaches it's limit (and according to some even reaches it!) different way than 0.999..., the number that has been expelled from R. You need to look again at
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6563628&postcount=12347
and find the bug there.

There were several UFO sightings years ago that made fun of this particular issue. UFO is 1 acronym divided into 3 letters, so it was predefined as UFO = 1/3. The movement and time of that mysterious triangle in the sky suggested some analogy . . .

1/9 = 0.111...
2/9 = 0.222...
3/9 = 0.333...

Clearly, when the denominator is 9, then the numerator repeats itself infinitely in the result provided by the long division. Since the analogy has formed itself pretty, no need to waste time by dividing -- you just enter the numerator into the result . . .

7/9 = 0.777...
8/9 = 0.888...

When you check once again to make sure that the analogy holds by doing the long division, you find out that the analogy really holds. So let's continue . . .

9/9 = 0.999...

But when you do the long division, then

9/9 = 1

Now it's the analogy vs the long division. Since we've got already enough religious wars, no one needs mathematical wars, and so the elders wisely decided on 0.999... = 1.

So that's the alien contribution to all possible explanation to the miraculous identity. There is another based on the etymology of "long division."

1/3 = 0.33333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333333...

Since LOL is 1 acronym divided into 3 letters, LOL = 1/3.
 
And what are those locations, exactly?
From a structural point of view 1/4 (the vertical red line) or 0.01[base 2] have one location along 0________1, where 0.25[base 10] has two locations along 0________1, as follows:

5194100024_c5f8b334f9_b.jpg
 
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From a structural point of view 1/4 (the vertical red line) or 0.01[base 2] have one location along 0________1, where 0.25[base 10] has two locations along 0________1, as follows:

5194100024_c5f8b334f9_b.jpg

What, you mean one 'location' for 0.2 and one for 0.25? You're kidding, right? In what way is that meaningful or useful? So there would be 3 locations for 1/8 (0.125)? A 'location' is just a decimal place, then? And why is there not one at 0.0 for 0.01[base 2]?
 
What, you mean one 'location' for 0.2 and one for 0.25? You're kidding, right?
I clearly show at least two locations for 0.25[base 10] along 0______1

In what way is that meaningful or useful?
It enables to deal with the structural properties of numbers, in addition to their quantitative properties.

So there would be 3 locations for 1/8 (0.125)?
According to the structural properties of numbers, 1/8 has at least 1 location along 0_____1 and 0.125[base 10] has at least 3 locations along 0_____1

A 'location' is just a decimal place, then?
No, "decimal" is related only to [base 10], where the locations along different scale levels of a given number, can be found in any base value > 1.

And why is there not one at 0.0 for 0.01[base 2]?
It depends on how you define the structural aspect of the number.

If the initial location (0.0) is considered, then 1/4 has at least two locations, which are the initial location 0 AND 1/4 location along 0______1

In that case 1/4 and 0.01[base 2] have two locations along 0______1,
0.25[base 10] has 3 locations along 0______1,
0.125[base 10] hase 4 locations along 0______1, etc ...
 
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From a structural point of view 1/4 (the vertical red line) or 0.01[base 2] have one location along 0________1, where 0.25[base 10] has two locations along 0________1, as follows:

[qimg]http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4087/5194100024_c5f8b334f9_b.jpg[/qimg]
According to the drawing, you seem to be moving at a constant speed v away from the point of recovery R. . .

Your "correction"
From a structural point of view 1/4 is a single AND strict location along segment 0_______1, where 0.25[base 10] is a non-single AND strict location along 0_______1.
didn't mention the base 2 nonsensical excuse that you came up with this time.

Theorem: 1 + 1 = 3.

Proof: If we add 1 to 1, we obtain 11, and 11(binary) = 3(decimal).
 
EDIT:

Student: “I have a proof against the assertion that 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, as follows:”

“First, we express 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… etc ... by the following diagram:”

________________________________.________________________________ 1/2 +

________________________________________________.________________ 1/4 +

________________________________________________________.________ 1/8 +

____________________________________________________________.____ 1/16 +

______________________________________________________________.__ 1/32 +

_______________________________________________________________._ 1/64 + ...


“If 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, as you assert, then the most right (Red or Blue) segment must be reduced into a single 0-dimensional space.”

“But according to the diagram above, this reduction is impossible, because 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… converge as pairs of segments, which have equal lengths , where the values of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… are determined by the most right point of the left segment of any arbitrary convergent pair of Blue\Red Red\blue equal segments, upon infinitely many scale levels”.

“In that case any arbitrary right segment of a given pair of equal segments upon infinitely many scale levels, is exactly the gap between any arbitrary number of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… and the number of the limit.”

Teacher: “Nope, we have been over this before, in order for the current segment being summed to be zero length (a point) the previous sum must already have reached the limit.”

Student: “I agree with you, this reduction is impossible exactly because 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… are the most right points of the left segment of any arbitrary convergent pair of Blue\Red Red\blue equal segments, upon infinitely many scale levels”.

“Again, In that case any arbitrary right segment of a given pair of equal segments upon infinitely many scale levels, is exactly the gap between
any arbitrary number of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… and the number of the limit.”

Teacher: “Referring back to your diagram re-demonstrate your lack of understanding of Mathematics doesn't support your claim. The only thing clearly demonstrated in that diagram is your obstinate insistence on misrepresentation.”

Student: “Is this kind of reply is considered by you as a reasonable answer to my proof against
the assertion that 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1?”

“Since you assert that 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, then please show it without reducing the most right (Red or Blue) segment into a single 0-dimensional space.”
 
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n the base 2 nonsensical excuse that you came up with this time.

Theorem: 1 + 1 = 3.

Proof: If we add 1 to 1, we obtain 11, and 11(binary) = 3(decimal).
Wrong theorem, because 0______1 is independent of any base value, as clearly shown by the following diagram:

5194100024_c5f8b334f9_b.jpg
 
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Student: “I have a proof against the assertion that 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, as follows:”

“First, we express 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… etc ... by the following diagram:”

________________________________________________________________ 1/2 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/4 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/8 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/16 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/32 +

________________________________________________________________ 1/64 + ...


“If 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1, as you assert, then the most right (Red or Blue) segment must be reduced into a single 0-dimensional space.”

“But according to the diagram above, this reduction is impossible, because 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… converge as pairs of segments, which have equal lengths , where the values of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… are determined by the most right point of the left segment of any arbitrary convergent pair of Blue\Red Red\blue equal segments, upon infinitely many scale levels”.

“In that case any arbitrary right segment of a given pair of equal segments upon infinitely many scale levels, is exactly the gap between any arbitrary number of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… and the number of the limit.”

Teacher: “Nope, we have been over this before, in order for the current segment being summed to be zero length (a point) the previous sum must already have reached the limit.”

Student: “I agree with you exactly because 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… are the most right points of the left segment of any arbitrary convergent pair of Blue\Red Red\blue equal segments, upon infinitely many scale levels”.

“Again, In that case any arbitrary right segment of a given pair of equal segments upon infinitely many scale levels, is exactly the gap between
any arbitrary number of 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… and the number of the limit.”

Teacher: “Referring back to your diagram re-demonstrate your lack of understanding of Mathematics doesn't support your claim. The only thing clearly demonstrated in that diagram is your obstinate insistence on misrepresentation.”

Student: “Is this kind of reply is considered by you as a reasonable answer to my proof against
the assertion that 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/32+1/64+… = 1?”

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schizophrenia
 


Someday, just maybe, you'll repeat this nonsense, and it will suddenly and magically become true. It will cease to be a gross misrepresentation and misunderstanding on your part.

Today, however, is not that day. You are still blatantly, embarrassingly wrong.
 
Doron,
Here, let's give you a leg-up on that "someday." All you need do is disprove the following statement. Then that nasty old summation won't work any more.

[latex]$$$\displaystyle
\forall {\epsilon > 0} ,\: \exists N \; n > N \Rightarrow \epsilon > \left| 1 - \sum_{i=1}^{n} {1 \over {2^i}} \right|
$$$[/latex]​

Perhaps you can find a simple counter example?
 
The utter nonsense is yours, because you are unable to get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6575426&postcount=12371 , which clearly demonstrates this utter nonsense of yours about the sum of convergent lengths, which is = to a given limit.

You are a complete ignorant about this fine subject, because you do not understand the results of your own claims.


Nope, I have certainly never claimed “a given line segment is reducible into a point.”. That ridiculous and utterly nonsensical claim is just yours Doron. That you would simply like to ascribe it to others does not make it any less your own utter nonsense. You are completely and evidently deliberately ignorant since you just don’t want to comprehend that the results of your claims are still just the results of your claims, regardless of whom you whish to ascribe them to.
 
"Of Cardinality"

Sung to the tune of

"AT SEVENTEEN" By Janis Ian





"Of Cardinality"

I learned the truth of cardinality
That mathematicians just can’t see
Among existing things with some magnitude
Of values to which I’ll just allude
The concepts that I never knew
The musing of kindergarten youth
Were taken as demonstrable
Of cardinality I learned the truth...

And those of us with 1-D spaces
Just can’t cover all the places
With just points all alone
Imagining math of my own
Replete with inconsistencies
And repeated vague obscurities
It isn't all it seems, of cardinality...

It’s from Fullness that it all abounds
For any non-empty set around
By some vague non-local property
I’ll claim with all sincerity
The set exists beyond itself
and add to it my imagination’s wealth
With even more obscurity
A linkage called complexity...

So remember those who use a set
And haven’t got that linage yet
From claims lacking quality and dubious integrity
I’ll ascribe to them claims of my own design
And unflinchingly claim a line
Exceeds the points it has, in cardinality...

From Emptiness we still must gain
The explanation that never came
Of the linkage from which it all ensues
You don’t get it? Well you lose
That’s too bad, it just a shame
If I can’t explain, it’s just you I’ll blame
Your direct perception just can’t see
This linkage of complexity…

It’s a fantasy that’s just repeated
An infinite set can’t be completed
With it’s members all alone
Imagining math of my own
Replete with inconsistencies
And repeated vague obscurities
It just isn't anything, of cardinality...
 
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