Deeper than primes

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epix, please read about Universal quantification ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_quantification ), before you air your view about this subject.
The term "universal quantifier" is a misnomer. The symbol cannot exist on its own and since there is no such thing as "for some x in P," for example, then the variability assumed in quantities doesn't materialize. Just find and copy/ paste a statement, such as "not forall x there exists..."

Objects belong to a particular set or they don't. If you define a set, you define its membership in such away that there doesn't exist at least one member that doesn't satisfy the definition of the membership. If you consider incrementing the size of the set by at least one member, you need to know if the property of such object satisfies the definition of the set. That means the subject of the possible increment either qualifies or not. So I treat A upside down as a qualifier. "Forall x in S" means that for every x that satisfies the definition of S, there exist... or whatever follows.

Tell you something: Once I stack with the general definition of a spacial point, applied it and saw sh-t. Then I redefined the point as a square whose side approaches zero. Having done so, that stuff I wanted to see showed up right before my eyes. If you parrot everything what the theoretician say, nothing gets done -- ever.
 
The term "universal quantifier" is a misnomer. The symbol cannot exist on its own and since there is no such thing as "for some x in P," for example, then the variability assumed in quantities doesn't materialize. Just find and copy/ paste a statement, such as "not forall x there exists..."

Objects belong to a particular set or they don't. If you define a set, you define its membership in such away that there doesn't exist at least one member that doesn't satisfy the definition of the membership. If you consider incrementing the size of the set by at least one member, you need to know if the property of such object satisfies the definition of the set. That means the subject of the possible increment either qualifies or not. So I treat A upside down as a qualifier. "Forall x in S" means that for every x that satisfies the definition of S, there exist... or whatever follows.

Tell you something: Once I stack with the general definition of a spacial point, applied it and saw sh-t. Then I redefined the point as a square whose side approaches zero. Having done so, that stuff I wanted to see showed up right before my eyes. If you parrot everything what the theoretician say, nothing gets done -- ever.

Do you understand the co-existence of "the general definition" (non-locality, or the rule) with "a spacial point" (locality, or a particular expression)?

Do you understand the co-existence of "Forall x" (localities, or the particular expressions of some rule) "in S" (non-locality, or the rule) means that for every x (localities, or the particular expressions of some rule) that satisfies the definition of S (non-locality, or the rule),...?

Do you "Just find and copy/ paste a statement," as the only source of your notions?

Please to not ignore:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7111406&postcount=15199

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7111434&postcount=15200

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7111142&postcount=15196

Please use your logic in order to deal with the following:

"The Ocean is still the Ocean even if it is both calm (at the bottom level) AND not calm (at the surface level)"
 
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Do you understand the co-existence of "the general definition" (non-locality, or the rule) with "a spacial point" (locality, or a particular expression)?

Do you understand the co-existence of "Forall x" (localities, or the particular expressions of some rule) "in S" (non-locality, or the rule) means that for every x (localities, or the particular expressions of some rule) that satisfies the definition of S (non-locality, or the rule),...?
Of course I don't and am not eager to learn. Those are your coined terms describing ghostly relationships that lead you toward making phantom claims, such as the one concerning the relation between a set and its power set, which made jsfisher to switch to bold font repeatedly. You can keep your translation of Forall x as "localities, or the particular expression of some rule" and apply it to your chamber mathematics, and I will go by 'Forall apples that are McIntosh there is basket B such as . . .'

Btw, why would be x a locality, which I think means that x has a predetermined position somewhere? If you organize integers as ... -2, -1, 0 ,1, 2, ... the way they use to sit on the x-axis, you never achieve any bijection between them and the infinite set of naturals, and your glasses will fall into obscurity.
 
The Man, you simply can't comprehend that "1-dimensional element" , "line", "unclosed interval", etc... is the same magnitude that enable smaller magnitudes to be distinguished from each other.

Doron “you simply can't comprehend that” your “magnitude” is a dimension.

You get only the level of the smaller magnitudes, without being aware of the magnitude that actually enables the distinction of their elements.

Again stop simply trying to posit aspects of your own failed reasoning onto others.

Once again you demonstrate your weak logic, which can't get the co-existence of the non-local and the local as fundamental agents of Unity, which enable the existence of finite or infinite complexity.

Doron you claim…

Remove the 1-dimensional element and there is no pair of distinct 0-dimensional elements.

Remove the pair of the distinct 0-dimensional elements, and the size of the 1-dimensional elements is unknown.

That’s not just “co-existence” as you would simply like to portray it, but specifically a mutual dependence.


I already have.


Without this fundamental understanding your science is no more than the surface level of the ocean of knowledge.

Doron you just calling it “fundamental understanding” still doesn’t make it science nor any kind of knowledge but just some fanciful musings you like to call “fundamental understanding”.



For example, by your surface-only reasoning you can't comprehend the following:

The Ocean is still the Ocean even if it is both calm (at the bottom level) AND not calm (at the surface level).


Again stop simply trying to posit aspects of your own failed reasoning onto others.

Also being “not calm (at the surface level)” or any level and “calm” at some other level certainly doesn’t disqualify “The Ocean” or an ocean from being “The Ocean” or an ocean. So your statement is a complete non-sequitur.
 
Here is some concrete example of The Man's "reasoning":

"the set of all natural numbers is closed under an integer operation of succession"

Actually it is just a consequence of that “all” qualifier when applied to the natural numbers however given your assertions, I wouldn’t expect you to understand that.



The proposition is wrong simply because any collection is actually open if succession is its inherent property, and this openness it true whether the succession is immediate, in the case of integers, or not immediate, in the case of rational or irrational numbers.

Fine then show what natural number is not a member of the set of all natural numbers. Otherwise stop simply babbling about what you would just like to be wrong.

So, next time if some professional mathematician asks you to show some object that is not a member of its set, please ask him\her to show you the complete infinite set of these members, without ignoring the following facts:

Doron you are claiming a succeeding natural number that is not in the set of all natural numbers and nothing you can ask of anyone will assuage your responsibility to demonstrate your claim.

1) One example at a time of some object that belongs to some infinite set, does not prove the completeness of that set.

Lists still aren’t sets Doron. The fact that no member is missing proves the completeness of any set. Once again you are deliberately misusing the word “completeness” to infer the inclusion of elements that you claim yourself not to be members of the given set.

2) Any infinite set exists exactly because succession (immediate or not) is its inherent property.

And it is an operation under which that the set is closed, otherwise a successor to a member of the set need not be a member of the set. We have been over this many times already Doron.

3) Succession among objects is possible only if there is an unclosed interval among them, otherwise there is not room for Succession, in the first place.

3 succeeds 2 in the closed interval [2,3]. So once again you are just demonstrably wrong.

4) Without the interval among objects, there are no distinct objects in the first place, and the only possible set is the empty set.

You’ve got that backwards, as usual and perhaps deliberately, without distinct objects there can be no intervals and {0} or {0,0,0,0…} would still be possible with “no distinct objects”. Perhaps you are simply confusing (again possibly deliberately) “no distinct objects” with just ‘no objects’.
 
Of course I don't and am not eager to learn. Those are your coined terms describing ghostly relationships that lead you toward making phantom claims, such as the one concerning the relation between a set and its power set, which made jsfisher to switch to bold font repeatedly. You can keep your translation of Forall x as "localities, or the particular expression of some rule" and apply it to your chamber mathematics, and I will go by 'Forall apples that are McIntosh there is basket B such as . . .
In other words, you simply ignore http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7111925&postcount=15202 and its links.

Btw, why would be x a locality, which I think means that x has a predetermined position somewhere? If you organize integers as ... -2, -1, 0 ,1, 2, ... the way they use to sit on the x-axis, you never achieve any bijection between them and the infinite set of naturals, and your glasses will fall into obscurity.
btw:

0 ↔ 1
-1 ↔ 2
1 ↔ 3
-2 ↔ 4
2 ↔ 5
-3 ↔ 6
3 ↔ 7
...

Locality is not only a location along the real line, but it is also interpreted as some particular expression (for example :some integer, or some natural number number), which obeys some general rule (non-locality) (for example: the definition of the set of integers, or the definition of the set of natural numbers).
 
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So, next time if some professional mathematician asks you to show some object that is not a member of its set, please ask him\her to show you the complete infinite set of these members, without ignoring the following facts:

1) One example at a time of some object that belongs to some infinite set, does not prove the completeness of that set.
x not in S doesn't relate to the concept of completness. Basket labeled Fruit is full (complete) even though there is one x=potato in it among all apples and oranges. x not in S doesn't mean that x is not a part of S, but that it doesn't belong to S.

If a mathematician asks you to find pi in the set of natural numbers, why would you insist on seeing "the whole set?" Only in the case the set was misdefined. Pi is not a member of the set of natural numbers and if the set was defined as N, then pi is not simply there.

I think that you initially claimed that forall x in N, there exists x, such as x not in N. The response to your claim was "show me a natural number that is not a part of N." Since x=x, the missing member is the one that is included in the set. Conversely any included member is the one that is not included in the set.


reality ain't no fiction
we prove it through contradiction
thin and rare don't describe dense
we prove it through common sense
 
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Doron “you simply can't comprehend that” your “magnitude” is a dimension.
You simply can't comprehend that magnitude is first of all a degree of existence from emptiness (the has no predecessor) to fullness (that has no successor).

Again stop simply trying to posit aspects of your own failed reasoning onto others.
This is exactly what you are doing all along this thread, by trying to posit aspects of your surface-only reasoning on others.


Doron you claim…

That’s not just “co-existence” as you would simply like to portray it, but specifically a mutual dependence.
Define it as you wish, it does not change the fact that a point (for example) can't be stretched into a line and still be considered as a point, and a line can't be reduced in to a point and still be considered as a line.

Doron you just calling it “fundamental understanding” still doesn’t make it science nor any kind of knowledge but just some fanciful musings you like to call “fundamental understanding”.
Your inability to get this fundamental understanding does not change the fact that this is a fundamental understating.

Again stop simply trying to posit aspects of your own failed reasoning onto others.
Again this is exactly what you are doing all along this thread, by trying to posit aspects of your surface-only reasoning on others.

Also being “not calm (at the surface level)” or any level and “calm” at some other level certainly doesn’t disqualify “The Ocean” or an ocean from being “The Ocean” or an ocean.
Great. By using this understating, try to grasp this:

The Line is still the Line even if it is both in AND not in a given domain (which is a property that no point has).
 
Originally Posted by epix
Btw, why would be x a locality, which I think means that x has a predetermined position somewhere? If you organize integers as ... -2, -1, 0 ,1, 2, ... the way they use to sit on the x-axis, you never achieve any bijection between them and the infinite set of naturals, and your glasses will fall into obscurity.

Locality is not only a location along the real line, but it is also interpreted as some particular expression (for example :some integer, or some natural number number), which obeys some general rule (non-locality) (for example: the definition of the set of integers, or the definition of the set of natural numbers).
That's why I don't want any part of your constructs. I stick with

GENERAL is to BROAD as SPECIFIC is to NARROW

instead.

Btw, I don't see any equivalency between the meaning of the word "rule" and the meaning of "definition," as it transpires from your example. Doronetics is too advanced a concept for me, coz the innards of my head have been terminally stereotyped by counting potatoes in the kitchen. 1 potato, 2 potato, ...
 
Actually it is just a consequence of that “all” qualifier when applied to the natural numbers however given your assertions, I wouldn’t expect you to understand that.
No, it is just a consequence of your misleading understanding of the real nature of infinite collections, which are opened under succession.

Fine then show what natural number is not a member of the set of all natural numbers.
Once again, no amount of particular examples of members that belong to some infinite set, define it as a complete set, because any infinite set is opened under succession.


Doron you are claiming a succeeding natural number that is not in the set of all natural numbers
No I do not claim such nonsense.

Once again, no amount of particular examples of members that belong to some infinite set, define it as a complete set, because any infinite set is opened under succession.

Lists still aren’t sets Doron. The fact that no member is missing proves the completeness of any set.
I am talking exactly about sets.

Once again, no amount of particular examples of members that belong to some infinite set, define it as a complete set, because any infinite set is opened under succession.

And it is an operation under which that the set is closed, otherwise a successor to a member of the set need not be a member of the set.
Opened does not mean that the result of the succession does not belong to its given set.

On the contrary, Opened means that succession is an inherent property of any given infinite set, which makes it incomplete.

3 succeeds 2 in the closed interval [2,3]. So once again you are just demonstrably wrong.
The Man, the interval is between 2 and 3.

Take it, and you don't have the distinct pair [2,3].


You’ve got that backwards, as usual and perhaps deliberately, without distinct objects there can be no intervals and {0} or {0,0,0,0…} would still be possible with “no distinct objects”. Perhaps you are simply confusing (again possibly deliberately) “no distinct objects” with just ‘no objects’.
I made a mistake here, the right one is:

"4) Without the interval among objects, there are no distinct objects in the first place, and the biggest possible set has no more than one member."

By the definition of Set {0} = {0,0,0,0…}.

By the definition of Multiset {0} ≠ {0,0,0,0…}, but then {0,0,0,0…} has an interval that is based on Redundancy among more than one object.
 
I think that you initially claimed that forall x in N, there exists x, such as x not in N.
Wrong.

If you claim that some infinite set is incomplete, the a professional mathematician asks you to show some object that is not a member of its set.
 
Define it as you wish, it does not change the fact that a point (for example) can't be stretched into a line and still be considered as a point, and a line can't be reduced in to a point and still be considered as a line.
Can you copy/paste a statement that claims such a thing? Before you do, be advised that "dragging a point" is not equivalent to "stretching a point." Dragging a point -- a 0-dim. object used to define location -- is equivalent to moving your finger whilst counting potatoes. Stretching a point means stretching your finger. That, of course, takes some time.
 
That's why I don't want any part of your constructs. I stick with

GENERAL is to BROAD as SPECIFIC is to NARROW

instead.
There is no instead here. Since BROAD and NARROW are in co-existence, the BROAD is the rule and the NARROW is some expression of it.

Btw, I don't see any equivalency between the meaning of the word "rule" and the meaning of "definition," as it transpires from your example. Doronetics is too advanced a concept for me, coz the innards of my head have been terminally stereotyped by counting potatoes in the kitchen. 1 potato, 2 potato, ...
Yet the rule is "potato" and "1 potato, 2 potato, ..." are particular expressions of it.
 
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Can you copy/paste a statement that claims such a thing?
Again you demonstrate your inability to determine your notions, if they can't be copy/paste from already agreed notions.

New notions are not born by only copy/paste already agreed notions. Do you understand that simple notion?

Before you do, be advised that "dragging a point" is not equivalent to "stretching a point." Dragging a point -- a 0-dim.
How many points do you have if you dragging a point?

object used to define location -- is equivalent to moving your finger whilst counting potatoes.
In order to be able to do that, there must be an interval among the potatoes, otherwise, there is no more than one potato to be counted.

Stretching a point means stretching your finger.
No, the finger is the rule that is non-local with respect to the counted (local) objects, where no amount of the counted objects (particular expressions) is the counting finger (the rule).
 
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There is no instead here. Since BROAD and NARROW are in co-existence, the BROAD is the rule and the NARROW is some expression of it.
Why it isn't the other way around: NARROW is the rule and BROAD is some expression of it? Have your choice been guided by your own private definition of "co-existence?"

Yet the rule is "potato" and "1 potato, 2 potato, ..." are particular expressions of it.
So a potato is the rule and the multitude of potatoes is a particular expression of it. Are you sure you got that right? See, potatoes are vegetables available in the PRODUCE section of the market. Since PRODUCE is 86% similar word to PRODUCT, the notion of a potato being a rule is just one lazy step away and takes on itself the form of PRODUCT RULE:
http://www.math.hmc.edu/calculus/tutorials/prodrule/

You may have experienced a corrupted subliminal association leading toward your statement that potato is the rule.
 
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Again you demonstrate your inability to determine your notions, if they can't be copy/paste from already agreed notions.

New notions are not born by only copy/paste already agreed notions. Do you understand that simple notion?
I do understand that you conceive a patently false ideas and deliver them the way that it looks as if someone else thought up that nonsense. Then you pick up a fight with your own invention but make it look as if you emerged victorious over your opponent -- an opponent who doesn't exist.

How many points do you have if you dragging a point?
Let's see . . . if I drag a thing, then I drag one thing. That means I drag 1 point.

In order to be able to do that, there must be an interval among the potatoes, otherwise, there is no more than one potato to be counted.
Even if you encounter a couple of potatoes that touch each other resembling co-joined twins, you still can space them apart and start anew: 1 potato, 2 potato, . . .

No, the finger is the rule that is non-local with respect to the counted (local) objects, where no amount of the counted objects (particular expressions) is the counting finger (the rule).

I see it differently. The finger F changes its position X as you point and count (FX) the objects O:

F1 --> 1st O
F2 --> 2nd O
F3 --> 3rd O

and so on. Basically your moving finger creates a set of positions and bijects the objects to be counted.
 
I do understand that you conceive a patently false ideas
Wrong, your ideas are false exactly because you do not understand of the result of the co-existence of locality with non-locality.

Let's see . . . if I drag a thing, then I drag one thing. That means I drag 1 point.
Do you get a line by dragging a one point?

Even if you encounter a couple of potatoes that touch each other resembling co-joined twins, you still can space them apart and start anew: 1 potato, 2 potato, . . .
Option 1: If they touch each other, they are not considered anymore as different objects (we get a one object to be counted).

Option 2: The potatoes are distinct exactly because they can't be reduced into a point, so in this case the interval is the impossibility of any potato to become a point.

The two options are in co-existence, as seen for example in:

images



I see it differently. The finger F changes its position X as you point and count (FX) the objects O:

F1 --> 1st O
F2 --> 2nd O
F3 --> 3rd O

and so on. Basically your moving finger creates a set of positions and bijects the objects to be counted.
In order to do that any counted object must be distinguished from the other objects, please show how it is possible without the co-existence of locality and non-locality.
 
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You simply can't comprehend that magnitude is first of all a degree of existence from emptiness (the has no predecessor) to fullness (that has no successor).

Your preferred nonsense doesn’t make your “magnitude” any less of a dimension.


This is exactly what you are doing all along this thread, by trying to posit aspects of your surface-only reasoning on others.

This “surface-only reasoning” nonsense is just your own personal ascription Doron, stop simply trying to pawn it off onto others.


Define it as you wish, it does not change the fact that a point (for example) can't be stretched into a line and still be considered as a point, and a line can't be reduced in to a point and still be considered as a line.

Doron a point is defined as having no dimensions while a line is defined as having only one. So those definitions are exactly what means a zero dimensional point can’t be a one dimensional line. While your “Define it as you wish” stance seems to still deliberately ignore that fact.

Your inability to get this fundamental understanding does not change the fact that this is a fundamental understating.

Your inability to get that you again calling it “fundamental understanding” still doesn’t make it science nor any kind of knowledge but just some fanciful musings that you still like to call “fundamental understanding”.

Again this is exactly what you are doing all along this thread, by trying to posit aspects of your surface-only reasoning on others.

This “surface-only reasoning” nonsense is just your own personal ascription Doron, stop simply trying to pawn it off onto others.


Great. By using this understating, try to grasp this:

The Line is still the Line even if it is both in AND not in a given domain (which is a property that no point has).

Since you insist, but I expect what you assert to be "Great" migth just be grating for you. Just as your ‘some part calm and some other part not calm’ non-sequitur about an ocean has nothing to do with what defines an ocean as being an ocean. Your ‘in and not in a given domain’ assertion about your “line” has nothing to do with what defines a line as being a line. The obvious difference between the former and the later (which again is most likely deliberate) is that in the former you explicitly assert that one part of the ocean is calm while some other part is not. However in the latter you make no such explicit assertion. One could presume that such an assertion was implicit but that would be inconsistent with your assertion of your indivisible line. As a result you are simply, and as already stated many times before, using some criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “not in a given domain” that is something other than the negation of your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “in a given domain”. Thus again and as usual you are simply being inconsistent with yourself. So which is it Doron, is your line in fact indivisible or is your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “not in a given domain” just something other than the negation of your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “in a given domain”. Either way, and as always, you simply remain the staunchest opponent of just your own notions.
 
No, it is just a consequence of your misleading understanding of the real nature of infinite collections, which are opened under succession.

Doron, changing your phrasing from “uncovered” to “opened under succession” doesn’t help you and only shows you don’t know what your talking about. All sets are complete. By definition they have only and all the members they are define to have.


Once again, no amount of particular examples of members that belong to some infinite set, define it as a complete set, because any infinite set is opened under succession.

Once again Doron it is the lack of missing members that define any set as complete and by definition a set is missing no members. As jsfisher has pointed out many times you continue to try to argue with just definitions and are apparently still deliberately confusing a set with a list.


No I do not claim such nonsense.

You claim all kinds of such nonsense. However if you do claim that any integer successor to any member of the set of all natural numbers is also a member of that set then that set is closed under an integer operation of succession.

Once again, no amount of particular examples of members that belong to some infinite set, define it as a complete set, because any infinite set is opened under succession.

Once again it is not about the “amount of particular examples of members” (that again would be a list) it is the lack of missing defined members (which again by definition there are none). Stop deliberately confusing a list with a set.

I am talking exactly about sets.

Then stop deliberately confusing them with lists. A set is complete by its definition, while a list may not be complete and in some cases can not be completed.

Once again, no amount of particular examples of members that belong to some infinite set, define it as a complete set, because any infinite set is opened under succession.

Once again it is not about the “amount of particular examples of members” (that again would be a list) it is the lack of missing defined members (which again by definition there are none). Stop deliberately confusing a list with a set.

Opened does not mean that the result of the succession does not belong to its given set.

“opened under succession” does. Do try to learn the meaning of words and phrases instead of just substituting your own demonstrable lack of any particular meaning.

On the contrary, Opened means that succession is an inherent property of any given infinite set, which makes it incomplete.

As already demonstrated succession is an aspect of the elements of some sets (specifically well ordered sets), even finite sets.

The Man, the interval is between 2 and 3.

Doron, the set from the closed interval [2,3] in the integers (or naturals) includes only “2 and 3” while the set from the open interval (2,3) in the integers (or naturals) is the empty set.

Take it, and you don't have the distinct pair [2,3].

“Take it”? To where? Or from where?. It isn’t part of that interval or the set from that interval. However, as already well established before you simply want to take elements that you assert yourself are not members of a set to claim that set as “incomplete” because it, by your own assertions, lacks those elements as members. As always you remain the staunchest opponent of just your own notions.


I made a mistake here, the right one is:

"4) Without the interval among objects, there are no distinct objects in the first place, and the biggest possible set has no more than one member."

By the definition of Set {0} = {0,0,0,0…}.

Your “definition” is just a false assertion of an equality. Your propensity for just replacing one mistake with some other still doesn’t help you, it never has and it never will.

By the definition of Multiset {0} ≠ {0,0,0,0…}, but then {0,0,0,0…} has an interval that is based on Redundancy among more than one object.

So we can add “interval” and “Multiset” to the list of words you evidently just don’t want to understand.
 
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Doron a point is defined as having no dimensions while a line is defined as having only one. So those definitions are exactly what means a zero dimensional point can’t be a one dimensional line. While your “Define it as you wish” stance seems to still deliberately ignore that fact.
You still do not get that your "mutually dependence" of points and lines do not change the fact that a point and a line can't be transformed into each other, and this is exactly the reason of why they are in co-existence, which is a fact that you simply can't comprehend.


Your inability to get that you again calling it “fundamental understanding” still doesn’t make it science nor any kind of knowledge but just some fanciful musings that you still like to call “fundamental understanding”.
In your realm there is no co-existence of points and lines, because you get a line as a collection of distinct points.

So once again, please demonstrate the existence of distinct points along a line, by ignoring the existence of the line between the points.


This “surface-only reasoning” nonsense is just your own personal ascription Doron, stop simply trying to pawn it off onto others.
Stop imply trying to pawn your points-only reasoning on others.



Since you insist, but I expect what you assert to be "Great" migth just be grating for you. Just as your ‘some part calm and some other part not calm’ non-sequitur about an ocean has nothing to do with what defines an ocean as being an ocean.
You still do not get the difference between a rule and some collection of its particular expressions.

In both cases, the rule is called Ocean or Line, where some particular expressions of the rule Ocean are both being calm AND not calm, exactly as some particular expressions of the rule Line is being both in AND not in a given domain.

You surface-serial-point-only reasoning simply can't comprehend it.

Your ‘in and not in a given domain’ assertion about your “line” has nothing to do with what defines a line as being a line. The obvious difference between the former and the later (which again is most likely deliberate) is that in the former you explicitly assert that one part of the ocean is calm while some other part is not. However in the latter you make no such explicit assertion. One could presume that such an assertion was implicit but that would be inconsistent with your assertion of your indivisible line. As a result you are simply, and as already stated many times before, using some criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “not in a given domain” that is something other than the negation of your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “in a given domain”. Thus again and as usual you are simply being inconsistent with yourself. So which is it Doron, is your line in fact indivisible or is your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “not in a given domain” just something other than the negation of your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “in a given domain”. Either way, and as always, you simply remain the staunchest opponent of just your own notions.

Furthermore, your weak reasoning unable to comprehend the generalization of Ocean and Line analogies into Rule\Rule's expression(s).
 
Doron, changing your phrasing from “uncovered” to “opened under succession” doesn’t help you and only shows you don’t know what your talking about. All sets are complete. By definition they have only and all the members they are define to have.
Wrong again The Man. You simply demonstrate again your inability to generalize what you read.

Once again Doron it is the lack of missing members that define any set as complete and by definition a set is missing no members. As jsfisher has pointed out many times you continue to try to argue with just definitions and are apparently still deliberately confusing a set with a list.
Your "confusing a set with a list" nonsense does not change the fact that succession is an inherent property of any given infinite set.

You claim all kinds of such nonsense. However if you do claim that any integer successor to any member of the set of all natural numbers is also a member of that set then that set is closed under an integer operation of succession.
Exactly the opposite, any given infinite set is opened exactly because succession is its inherent property.

Once again it is not about the “amount of particular examples of members” (that again would be a list) it is the lack of missing defined members (which again by definition there are none). Stop deliberately confusing a list with a set.
You simply can't comprehend the simple fact that succession is an inherent property of any infinite set, and as a result the whole idea of fixed transfinite cardinality, is false.

Then stop deliberately confusing them with lists. A set is complete by its definition, while a list may not be complete and in some cases can not be completed.
Your reasoning can't distinguish between a given definition (the rule) and a collection of particular expressions of it, so you have no case about this fine subject, in the first place.

Once again it is not about the “amount of particular examples of members” (that again would be a list) it is the lack of missing defined members (which again by definition there are none). Stop deliberately confusing a list with a set.
Once again, you simply can't comprehend the simple fact that succession is an inherent property of any infinite set, and as a result the whole idea of fixed transfinite cardinality, is false.

“opened under succession” does. Do try to learn the meaning of words and phrases instead of just substituting your own demonstrable lack of any particular meaning.
Read it as "open under succession". Do try to generalize what you read.

As already demonstrated succession is an aspect of the elements of some sets (specifically well ordered sets), even finite sets.
Any set that has more than one member, succession is its inherent property, and in the case of infinite sets, this inherent property permanently prevents the completeness of infinite sets.


Doron, the set from the closed interval [2,3] in the integers (or naturals) includes only “2 and 3”
Exactly because there is an interval between them, which enables their distinction from each other.

Once again you demonstrate of your misunderstanding of the must have terms (Non-locality\Locality) that are needed in order for [2,3] to exist, in the first place.

“Take it”? To where? Or from where?. It isn’t part of that interval or the set from that interval. However, as already well established before you simply want to take elements that you assert yourself are not members of a set to claim that set as “incomplete” because it, by your own assertions, lacks those elements as members. As always you remain the staunchest opponent of just your own notions.
A lot of meaningless words, which try to cover The Man's misunderstanding of succession as an inherent property of any infinite set.

Your “definition” is just a false assertion of an equality. Your propensity for just replacing one mistake with some other still doesn’t help you, it never has and it never will.
Your misunderstanding of the co-existence of a rule and its particular expressions, stands at the basis of your ignorance about this fine and important subject.

So we can add “interval” and “Multiset” to the list of words you evidently just don’t want to understand.
You two last posts are another demonstrations of your misunderstanding of “interval” and “Multiset”.
 
You still do not get that your "mutually dependence" of points and lines do not change the fact that a point and a line can't be transformed into each other, and this is exactly the reason of why they are in co-existence, which is a fact that you simply can't comprehend.

You still don’t get that it has nothing to do with "mutually dependence" a point isn’t a line by definition. As no one has claimed a point can be a line you continue to argue with just definitions, yourself and most of the time your own so called “definitions”, “which is a fact that you simply can't comprehend”.


In your realm there is no co-existence of points and lines, because you get a line as a collection of distinct points.

“a line as a collection of distinct points” would be a “co-existence of points and lines”, so the discrepancies remain simply and entirely “In your realm”.

So once again, please demonstrate the existence of distinct points along a line, by ignoring the existence of the line between the points.

What do you mean “once again”? Doron the set of all natural numbers (as integers) excludes the “line between the points”. So the ignorance remains simply yours and in this case it is specifically about what you mean by “ignoring the existence of the line between the points”.


Stop imply trying to pawn your points-only reasoning on others.

Just changing your personal ascription of “surface-only reasoning” to “points-only reasoning” doesn’t make it any less just your personal ascription and stop simply trying to pawn it off onto others.

You still do not get the difference between a rule and some collection of its particular expressions.

You still don’t get that your self-contradictory nonsense aren’t rules or any “particular expression” of such that is, well, consistent.

In both cases, the rule is called Ocean or Line, where some particular expressions of the rule Ocean are both being calm AND not calm, exactly as some particular expressions of the rule Line is being both in AND not in a given domain.

So now we can rule out “rule” as not being among the list of words you simply refuse to understand.

You surface-serial-point-only reasoning simply can't comprehend it.

Stop simply trying to posit aspects of your own failed reasoning onto others.


Furthermore, your weak reasoning unable to comprehend the generalization of Ocean and Line analogies into Rule\Rule's expression(s).

By all means please demonstrate your lack of “weak reasoning” by telling us which of these deliberate self-inconsistencies you are striving for…


So which is it Doron, is your line in fact indivisible or is your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “not in a given domain” just something other than the negation of your criteria for determining that your indivisible line is “in a given domain”.
 
Wrong again The Man. You simply demonstrate again your inability to generalize what you read.

Unfortunately for you Doron it is your responsibility to give what you write some particular meaning, not for others to “generalize” such for you.

Your "confusing a set with a list" nonsense does not change the fact that succession is an inherent property of any given infinite set.

It is your confusion Doron and evidently it is deliberate.

Exactly the opposite, any given infinite set is opened exactly because succession is its inherent property.

As already demonstrated closed intervals can have “succession” as well.

You simply can't comprehend the simple fact that succession is an inherent property of any infinite set, and as a result the whole idea of fixed transfinite cardinality, is false.

You simply can’t comprehend that being closed or open is about including the endpoints in the interval (which we have been over many times before) while succession is specifically an aspect of ordering (which we have also been over many times before). Neither of them are inconsistent with “transfinite cardinality” while your assertions remain inconsistent with even just, well, your assertions.

Your reasoning can't distinguish between a given definition (the rule) and a collection of particular expressions of it, so you have no case about this fine subject, in the first place.

As usual you just don’t like rules even the ones you try some particular expressions of yourself, which is why you inevitably and generally immediately contradict yourself.

Once again, you simply can't comprehend the simple fact that succession is an inherent property of any infinite set, and as a result the whole idea of fixed transfinite cardinality, is false.

Once again “you simply can't comprehend the simple fact that succession is an” aspect of ordering, even though we have been over it many times. So you confusion remains simply deliberate.

Read it as "open under succession". Do try to generalize what you read.

It means the same thing (one just uses the past tense of ‘open’, ‘opened’), as usual you expect “generalize” to mean ascribing whatever meaning that suits you whenever it suits you. Do try to understand what you write and not just try to generalize your nonsense.


Any set that has more than one member, succession is its inherent property, and in the case of infinite sets, this inherent property permanently prevents the completeness of infinite sets.

No succession is an aspect of ordering that you still deliberately refuse to accept. By all means please define a successor without ordering.


Exactly because there is an interval between them, which enables their distinction from each other.

“2 and 3” are not between to “2 and 3” so the interval specifically excludes anything between them. It could just as well be A and B in the alphabet, there is nothing between A and B. They are distinct because they are, well, different, that difference does not depend on any intervening (or between) “interval”. One is the successor of the other only because they are ordered. That you simply refuse to comprehend any of this is no one’s problem but yours.


Once again you demonstrate of your misunderstanding of the must have terms (Non-locality\Locality) that are needed in order for [2,3] to exist, in the first place.

Once again you demonstrate your deliberate misunderstanding that your “must have terms” must be had be anyone other than just you.

A lot of meaningless words, which try to cover The Man's misunderstanding of succession as an inherent property of any infinite set.

Every word I used was done so with a specific meaning and I can provide a reference for any and all that you choose to question. Again, as we have been over this many times succession is specifically an aspect of ordering.

Your misunderstanding of the co-existence of a rule and its particular expressions, stands at the basis of your ignorance about this fine and important subject.

Your deliberate misunderstanding of the word “co-existence” still doesn’t make it “a rule”


You two last posts are another demonstrations of your misunderstanding of “interval” and “Multiset”.

You think so? Fine then look them up and provide a reference to your specific meaning of those words, otherwise the misunderstanding remains deliberately and only yours.
 
Wrong, your ideas are false exactly because you do not understand of the result of the co-existence of locality with non-locality.
Nope. My ideas are correct in the domain where the definition of "co-existence" agrees with the general understanding and application of the word. It has been evidenced that your definition of the word differs and therefore your application of it yields different theoretical results.

Do you get a line by dragging a one point?
What do you mean by "get?"
Dragging a point is a concept and not a defined construction of a line. Do you "get" any subset of R+ by dragging number x>0? (Remember that set members can be also defined and rendered as points.)

ts


Option 1: If they touch each other, they are not considered anymore as different objects (we get a one object to be counted).
If I were you, I wouldn't seek employment with Heiniken Brewing Company.
Option 2: The potatoes are distinct exactly because they can't be reduced into a point, so in this case the interval is the impossibility of any potato to become a point.
Your definition of "distinction" is unlike the one used by the execs of Heiniken Brewing Company. I personally stick with their definition rather than with yours.
The two options are in co-existence, as seen for example in:

[qimg]http://t3.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcTrCX5fay826pCAc3ZGm7LILAoKUj-FC9J05OmZqkTiKkVbRY4ItQ[/qimg]


In order to do that any counted object must be distinguished from the other objects, please show how it is possible without the co-existence of locality and non-locality.
Your Options 1 and 2 don't include any reference to locality and non-locality that appear in your conclusion, so I don't know what you are talking about.

Cantor's Continuum hypothesis: There is no set whose cardinality is strictly between that of the integers and that of the real numbers.

That's why the visual rendition of the statement includes two and only two pics.

istock_photo_of_potatoes.jpg

PerfectMashedPotatoes.JPG
 
By all means please define a successor without ordering.
Succession of objects within a given infinite set, has nothing do to with order.

This is the reason why, for example, {a,b,c,d,e,...} = {b,c,a,e,d,...}.

Once again you demonstrate your inability to understand simple notions, because your mind is tuned to think within agreed boxes.

Unfortunately for you Doron it is your responsibility to give what you write some particular meaning, not for others to “generalize” such for you.

As for generalization, it is up to you to get out of your boxes thinking style, in order to generalize what you read by using your own mind.

Unfortunately for you The Man your mind became lazy because of too many years of boxes thinking style, until you need others to organize everything in your agreed boxes, before you are able to deal with some subject.

The Man, with this kind of thinking style, you have no chance to think out of the box, where one on the fundamental abilities of thinking out of the box is called generalization, which is something that you simply can't do, and we see this inability over and over again all along this thread.

It could just as well be A and B in the alphabet, there is nothing between A and B. They are distinct because they are, well, different, that difference does not depend on any intervening (or between) “interval”.
The Man, A and B are different exactly because there is an interval between them, which is called difference.

If there is nothing between A and B, then there is one and only one thing, no matter how many names it has.

Again your boxes thinking style fails to generalize the notion of interval in order to get it also in terms of difference.
 
Nope. My ideas are correct in the domain where the definition of "co-existence" agrees with the general understanding and application of the word.
Your definition of "distinction" is unlike the one used by the execs of Heiniken Brewing Company. I personally stick with their definition rather than with yours.
Yes I know, you don't do anything in order to think also out of the agreed box, so?
Dragging a point is a concept
A concept for what?

(Remember that set members can be also defined and rendered as points.)
[qimg]http://rpmedia.ask.com/ts?u=/wikipedia/commons/thumb/a/a5/Bijection.svg/200px-Bijection.svg.png[/qimg]
Why do you ignore the drawn lines between the points?


Your Options 1 and 2 don't include any reference to locality and non-locality that appear in your conclusion, so I don't know what you are talking about.
Because you ignore the line and get only the points, as also observed above.

Cantor's Continuum hypothesis: There is no set whose cardinality is strictly between that of the integers and that of the real numbers.
The Cantorean Transfinite mathematical universe is nonsense, so?

That's why the visual rendition of the statement includes two and only two pics.
The second picture is not a collection of distinct objects, so it can't be used as a model for the set of real numbers.

You simply repeat on Cantor's misunderstanding of the real nature of the continuum, which is Non-locality.
 
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If there is nothing between A and B, then there is one and only one thing, no matter how many names it has.
So like Annie and Bill are actually AnnieBill -- just one people?

A and B are different exactly because there is an interval between them, which is called difference.
So if A and B are not different, then there is no interval between them, right?
I think this is a purely theoretical notion, coz there is no space between them at all, but they don't look different to me.
 
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A concept for what?
Dragging a point is a visual concept that leads toward the understanding of the dimensionality of objects -- it has nothing to do with defined construction of a line segment. Your personal definition of "difference" obscurs the distinction, so you will continue to swim through pointless arguments.

[qimg]http://rpmedia.ask.com/ts?u=/wikipedia/commons/thumb/a/a5/Bijection.svg/200px-Bijection.svg.png[/qimg]
Why do you ignore the drawn lines between the points?

Because you ignore the line and get only the points, as also observed above.

Those are not lines but arrows. The points in both sets don't define any lines; the function of the arrows is to relate particular points. That's why arrows and not lines.
The Cantorean Transfinite mathematical universe is nonsense, so?
You can declare anything you want, but you can't back your declaration by anything else but another declaration ocassionally garnished with home-made localities and non-localities.

The second picture is not a collection of distinct objects, so it can't be used as a model for the set of real numbers.
The set of real numbers is uncountable and that means you can't count the potatoes in the bowl reserved for mashed potatoes. So the pic can be used.

You simply repeat on Cantor's misunderstanding of the real nature of the continuum, which is Non-locality.
You can only say so and back your statement with nothing of a substance.
 
So if A and B are not different, then there is no interval between them, right?
Your boxes thinking style is closed now in the box of metric space.

As a result you understand the term interval only in terms of physical gap between A and B.

By generalize interval in terms of difference, which is not closed under the box of metric space, if there is no interval between A and B (or in other words: there is nothing between A and B) then A and B are different names of one and only one thing.

Your chauvinist vulgar examples do not change the right reasoning of this fine subject.
 
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Dragging a point is a visual concept that leads toward the understanding of the dimensionality of objects
Please share with us, in details, the "the understanding of the dimensionality of objects", which is derived from "Dragging a point".
 
Succession of objects within a given infinite set, has nothing do to with order.

Fine, then by all means please define your “succession” without ordering.


This is the reason why, for example, {a,b,c,d,e,...} = {b,c,a,e,d,...}.

Much as it doesn’t surprise anyone, an example of a set with two different orderings is not a definition of “succession” without ordering.

Are you perhaps just confusing ordering with some specific ordering?

Please tell us what element of your set the first element of your set is a successor to?

Please tell us what element in your set is the successor to all the elements of your set.

As, by your own assertions, your “difference” requires your “interval” and the orderings of your set are different in your example, please tell us what is the “interval” that you require by that difference?





Once again you demonstrate your inability to understand simple notions, because your mind is tuned to think within agreed boxes.

As for generalization, it is up to you to get out of your boxes thinking style, in order to generalize what you read by using your own mind.

Unfortunately for you The Man your mind became lazy because of too many years of boxes thinking style, until you need others to organize everything in your agreed boxes, before you are able to deal with some subject.

The Man, with this kind of thinking style, you have no chance to think out of the box, where one on the fundamental abilities of thinking out of the box is called generalization, which is something that you simply can't do, and we see this inability over and over again all along this thread.

OH NO!!

Not the ‘get out of your box’ retort!!!

Again…

What a laugh.

This is your box, Doron. That you simply have as much distain (if not more) for your own box as you do for any other, that you would simply like to ascribe to others, is of consequence to no one but you. It is incumbent on no one but you to construct your box in, at the very least, a self consistent manor. Similarly filling your box with some particular meaning of your own choosing befalls no one but you. That you simply can’t be bothered to perform either of those tasks in no way gives anyone else the responsibility to do so for you. Why how deliberately lazy, of just you, Doron.


What Doron is attempting to advocate here, other than simply and deliberately trying to abdicate his own responsibility for his own notions and assertions, is a technique common to cold readers, con artists and other hucksters. By recommending, forcing or even just allowing the audience to provide their own meaning to such assertions the presenter frees themselves of the responsibility of any resulting discrepancies as well as gets the audience invested in such meaning that they choose to ascribe themselves. The problem is that we here on this forum are more than familiar with such antics. Additionally it may not even be intentional on Doron’s part but just a technique that has gotten him what he perceives as preferred results before. So he might have never found the need (nor found it beneficial) to take full responsibility for his own assertions.




The Man, A and B are different exactly because there is an interval between them, which is called difference.

If there is nothing between A and B, then there is one and only one thing, no matter how many names it has.

Again your boxes thinking style fails to generalize the notion of interval in order to get it also in terms of difference.




As already demonstrated the letters A and B are different (just as the orderings in your set example above are different), but with no interval as a consequence of that difference. Heck, technically an interval doesn’t even require a difference as in the case of [1,1], which results in the set {1}.



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interval_(mathematics)

The interval of numbers between a and b, including a and b, is often denoted [a,b]. The two numbers are called the endpoints of the interval.
[edit] Excluding the endpoints
To indicate that one of the endpoints is to be excluded from the set, many writers substitute a parenthesis for the corresponding square bracket. Thus, in set builder notation,
Note that (a,a), [a,a), and (a,a] denote the empty set, whereas [a,a] denotes the set {a}. When a > b, all four notations are usually assumed to represent the empty set.




http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partially_ordered_set#Interval


Interval
For a ≤ b, the closed interval [a,b] is the set of elements x satisfying a ≤ x ≤ b (i.e. a ≤ x and x ≤ b). It contains at least the elements a and b.
Using the corresponding strict relation "<", the open interval (a,b) is the set of elements x satisfying a < x < b (i.e. a < x and x < b). An open interval may be empty even if a < b. For example, the open interval (1,2) on the integers is empty since there are no integers i such that 1 < i < 2.
Sometimes the definitions are extended to allow a > b, in which case the interval is empty.
The half-open intervals [a,b) and (a,b] are defined similarly.
A poset is locally finite if every interval is finite. For example, the integers are locally finite under their natural ordering.
This concept of an interval in a partial order should not be confused with the particular class of partial orders known as the interval orders.

So by all means, please Doron, stop being so dang lazy and do try to at least learn something.

Certainly some differences do result in an interval just as some intervals can result from a difference, but neither specifically requires nor is required by the other.

The specific fallacy you are engaging in (at least in this particular case), Doron, is called the fallacy of necessity.


So your assertion now is that you just want to call your “interval” a “difference” dispite the fact that there is no difference in some intervals? Talk about just being lazy, Doron.
 
The specific fallacy you are engaging in (at least in this particular case), Doron, is called the fallacy of necessity.


So your assertion now is that you just want to call your “interval” a “difference” dispite the fact that there is no difference in some intervals? Talk about just being lazy, Doron.

My impression was that Doron has been attempting to "formalize" the absence of magnitude for particular x by x not in [a, b]:

forall x in R thereexist x such as x notin [a, b]
 
Originally Posted by epix
Those are not lines but arrows.

Another example of the inability of boxes cut\paste thinking style to generalize the considered subject.
Your decision regarding the situation that calls for the generalization of a subject is of a peculiar origin. Arrows are functional symbols and are also applied in order to prevent misunderstanding.

surjection.svg.png

44_02a485699c34821f987048874d4a1915.png


You map from/to and it doesn't go the other way around.

Generalization enables the investigation of various relationships, such as analogy, between two subjects. Generalization results in a broad definition that enables two things to have something in common, so they can be related.

Your immense penchant for global generalization allows you to hump a sheep, coz it is a mammal as you are, and it was very likely acquired by archtypal inheritance (shepherds).
 
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Another example of the inability of boxes cut\paste thinking style to generalize the considered subject.

Please share with us, in details, the "the understanding of the dimensionality of objects", which is derived from "Dragging a point".
In details?
I think I can reply with your own quote:
Another example of the inability of boxes cut\paste thinking style to generalize the considered subject.
 
My impression was that Doron has been attempting to "formalize" the absence of magnitude for particular x by x not in [a, b]:

forall x in R thereexist x such as x notin [a, b]



Certainly, as all collections aren't sets (as in a proper class), sets (and the intervals they might result from) exclude elements not in the set or interval. As do boxes, cans, tanks and containers of all sorts. They have such utility by that exclusion/inclusion dichotomy. Unlike Doron's claims that have no utility no matter how many dichotomies he tries to just label them with.

Technically at the most basic Doron's assertion is as follows. Given domain "q" and the resulting "!q". Some line (or perhaps even ray) "X" that transverses domain "q" is, by virtue of considering that line (or ray) as a whole and indivisible both 'in "q" AND not in "q"' (meaning in "!q" as well as in "q", "X", to at least some degree, transverses both). As already stated before either the line is divisible into some part that is in "q" AND some other part that is not in "q" (thus in "!q") or the criteria for determining that said line (or ray) as a whole is 'not in "q"' is just something other than the explicit negation of it being as a whole 'in "q"'. Either way it is simply just self inconsistent. He does tend to go into a whole bunch of rigmarole to try to express his notion that points can't cover a line (or in his meaningless terminology du jour, 'there is an "open interval"'). However, that is only intended to promote his notion that a line (or ray) must be considered in its entirety to be his "complete". Which still does not diminish the direct self contradiction of his in AND not in AND indivisible ("complete") assertions. You will note that he deliberately leaves off the last "AND indivisible" as just a hidden assumption that he just can't hide as it is one major premise of his assertions.
 
Certainly, as all collections aren't sets (as in a proper class), sets (and the intervals they might result from) exclude elements not in the set or interval. As do boxes, cans, tanks and containers of all sorts. They have such utility by that exclusion/inclusion dichotomy. Unlike Doron's claims that have no utility no matter how many dichotomies he tries to just label them with.

Technically at the most basic Doron's assertion is as follows. Given domain "q" and the resulting "!q". Some line (or perhaps even ray) "X" that transverses domain "q" is, by virtue of considering that line (or ray) as a whole and indivisible both 'in "q" AND not in "q"' (meaning in "!q" as well as in "q", "X", to at least some degree, transverses both). As already stated before either the line is divisible into some part that is in "q" AND some other part that is not in "q" (thus in "!q") or the criteria for determining that said line (or ray) as a whole is 'not in "q"' is just something other than the explicit negation of it being as a whole 'in "q"'. Either way it is simply just self inconsistent. He does tend to go into a whole bunch of rigmarole to try to express his notion that points can't cover a line (or in his meaningless terminology du jour, 'there is an "open interval"'). However, that is only intended to promote his notion that a line (or ray) must be considered in its entirety to be his "complete". Which still does not diminish the direct self contradiction of his in AND not in AND indivisible ("complete") assertions. You will note that he deliberately leaves off the last "AND indivisible" as just a hidden assumption that he just can't hide as it is one major premise of his assertions.
I can't claim that I can decode Doron's scribble to be dead positive about his intentions, but I had an impression that Doron can't reconcile in his head the situation where line segment a can be divided by n where n → ∞ with the result being a collection of "line sub-segments," whose number approaches infinity, and he views one such line sub-segment as line sub-segment a b, which he shapes into the interval (a, b) and which must be omnipresent ad infinitum. He speculates that the presence of those indestructible intervals is a contradiction to the formulation of "full coverage of line by points." He seems to have a difficulty to understand that in order for h = a/n; n → ∞ to be possible, there exists x such as x in (a, b), to allow the division of the line segment continue ad infinitum. In other words, there is no point such as x not in (a, b). It seems to me that Doron equals "full point coverage" to "point adjacency." I asked him a couple of times about that, but he replied with a salvo of unrelated links to his previous scribbles. I tried to hint to him that "full point coverage" could mean that there is no location on a line segment where a point cannot be placed in order to divide that line segment into two line sub-segments. But Doron's machine was in full speed and ran over the hint like a Lamborghini over a cockroach with Doron behind the wheel steering toward The Unprecedented Glory Award ceremonies. The man who handily destroyed all we have known. Unaware how the ranks have grown. Driven on by a heart of stone. We could find that we're all alone in the dream of the proud. On the wings of the night... Whaat? LOL. Sorry.
 
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I can't claim that I can decode Doron's scribble to be dead positive about his intentions, but I had an impression that Doron can't reconcile in his head the situation where line segment a can be divided by n where n → ∞ with the result being a collection of "line sub-segments," whose number approaches infinity, and he views one such line sub-segment as line sub-segment a b, which he shapes into the interval (a, b) and which must be omnipresent ad infinitum. He speculates that the presence of those indestructible intervals is a contradiction to the formulation of "full coverage of line by points." He seems to have a difficulty to understand that in order for h = a/n; n → ∞ to be possible, there exists x such as x in (a, b), to allow the division of the line segment continue ad infinitum. In other words, there is no point such as x not in (a, b). It seems to me that Doron equals "full point coverage" to "point adjacency." I asked him a couple of times about that, but he replied with a salvo of unrelated links to his previous scribbles. I tried to hint to him that "full point coverage" could mean that there is no location on a line segment where a point cannot be placed in order to divide that line segment into two line sub-segments. But Doron's machine was in full speed and ran over the hint like a Lamborghini over a cockroach with Doron behind the wheel steering toward The Unprecedented Glory Award ceremonies. The man who handily destroyed all we have known. Unaware how the ranks have grown. Driven on by a heart of stone. We could find that we're all alone in the dream of the proud. On the wings of the night... Whaat? LOL. Sorry.

Doron is merely pointing out that your reasoning is stuck in a hypothetical abstraction known as mathematics.

It is time to emerge from this abstraction and realise that in reality/existence size or measurement is entirely relative.

Unless you have two or more objects in existence, measurement is meaningless, it is N+or- infinity.

If you have more than two objects you have the existence of relative measurements. Which can then be hypothetically arranged in an abstract thought construct.
That +or-infinity has disappeared, however it is still there, only behind the scenes now.

Imagine a banana in a universe, you know how long it is. Remove that universe so that only the banana remains*. How long is it now?

*for the purposes of this analogy
 
I can't claim that I can decode Doron's scribble to be dead positive about his intentions, but I had an impression that Doron can't reconcile in his head the situation where line segment a can be divided by n where n → ∞ with the result being a collection of "line sub-segments," whose number approaches infinity, and he views one such line sub-segment as line sub-segment a b, which he shapes into the interval (a, b) and which must be omnipresent ad infinitum. He speculates that the presence of those indestructible intervals is a contradiction to the formulation of "full coverage of line by points." He seems to have a difficulty to understand that in order for h = a/n; n → ∞ to be possible, there exists x such as x in (a, b), to allow the division of the line segment continue ad infinitum. In other words, there is no point such as x not in (a, b). It seems to me that Doron equals "full point coverage" to "point adjacency." I asked him a couple of times about that, but he replied with a salvo of unrelated links to his previous scribbles. I tried to hint to him that "full point coverage" could mean that there is no location on a line segment where a point cannot be placed in order to divide that line segment into two line sub-segments. But Doron's machine was in full speed and ran over the hint like a Lamborghini over a cockroach with Doron behind the wheel steering toward The Unprecedented Glory Award ceremonies. The man who handily destroyed all we have known. Unaware how the ranks have grown. Driven on by a heart of stone. We could find that we're all alone in the dream of the proud. On the wings of the night... Whaat? LOL. Sorry.



Looks like you got it dead nuts on there epix, While he seems to have no problem with a line being covered by increasingly smaller line segments. He defaults at the limit of points. Of course as asserted many times before, and recently asserted by himself, it is those points that define such increasingly smaller line segments. He just can't seem to make up his mind. Whether he wants a discrete space with his self-contradictory notation of .00000...1, indicating an infinitesimal and thus a smallest line segment (basically a one dimensional yet infinitely small point). Or a continuous space with no such dimensional limitation on the minimal location. He just wants both in the same context (his own indefinite and self contradictory context that is), which again is why he still remains the staunchest opponent of just his own notions.
 
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