Deeper than primes

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[qimg]http://www.threedonia.com/wp-content/uploads/2011/03/Waldo.jpg[/qimg]

I think of all the education that you've missed.
But then your homework was never quite like this!






I think of all the education that you've not missed. Maybe then your homework was never quite like this!

gdfgdfg.jpeg


( http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_LS9FUwupaPM/SDTv7--j1KI/AAAAAAAAALo/rvgwNbpyJus/s320/gdfgdfg.jpeg )

This time epix's "humor" is used in order to avoid http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7228839&postcount=15518 .
 
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Do you have some problem to understand that if x and y points have zero distance between them, then they are actually at least 3 distinct points ?

You evaded the question. Care to try again? Where in the foundations of pseudo-metric space is location mentioned?

Acceding to Modern Mathematics' pseudometric space reasoning "need not be distinguishable" AND "distinct values x≠y" is a contradiction exactly because x and y points are indistinguishable AND distinct in the same space, no matter what name is given to that space (pseudo-metric or whatever).

...and for that matter, where are points mentioned in it all?


You are rigidly fixated on things that aren't there.
 
You evaded the question. Care to try again? Where in the foundations of pseudo-metric space is location mentioned?



...and for that matter, where are points mentioned in it all?


You are rigidly fixated on things that aren't there.

You are rigidly fixated on not getting things that are in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7228886&postcount=15519 and explicitly provide the answers about location (by not using it) and points ( they are explicitly used in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudometric_space ).

This time please read all of http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7228886&postcount=15519 before you reply to it.
 
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You are rigidly fixated on not getting things that are in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7228886&postcount=15519 and explicitly provide the answers about location (by not using it) and points ( they are explicitly used in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudometric_space ).

This time please read all of http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7228886&postcount=15519 before you reply to it.
I see that you are ill-prepared to deal with the topic in a rigorous manner. There seems to be a complete void in understanding on your part of the necessary complements -- something that you need to be aware of in order to proceed.

It is proved that for each compact metric space X there exist a continuous pseudo-hairy space over X and a continuous pseudo-fan of X.
http://journals.impan.gov.pl/fm/Inf/171-2-1.html

Before you embarrass yourself once again before the eyes of the math world, please peruse the brief visual tutorial to get acquainted with the highlighted terms.

1. pseudo-hairy

2. pseudo-fan
 
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...explicitly provide the answers about location (by not using it)

Good. So you admit that pseudo-metric spaces do not introduce a location concept. Is it just the distance function concept that escapes you?

It's really simple. A pseudo-metric space is a set A (you may call its members points if that comforts you) and a function D from AxA to R>=0, normally referred to as distance.

Let A be the set of all integer pairs, (m,n). If (a,b) and (c,d) are in A, let D((a,b), (c,d)) be defined as |a-c|.

Don't those meet all the requirements for pseudo-metric space? Are not (1,3) and (1,6) distinct elements of A? Is not the distance between them 0?
 
Good. So you admit that pseudo-metric spaces do not introduce a location concept.
I actually show that even if location is not introduced, still 1=3 according to pseudo-metric space reasoning.

Is it just the distance function concept that escapes you?

It's really simple. A pseudo-metric space is a set A (you may call its members points if that comforts you) and a function D from AxA to R>=0, normally referred to as distance.

Let A be the set of all integer pairs, (m,n). If (a,b) and (c,d) are in A, let D((a,b), (c,d)) be defined as |a-c|.

Don't those meet all the requirements for pseudo-metric space? Are not (1,3) and (1,6) distinct elements of A? Is not the distance between them 0?
According to pseudo-metric space the distinct x=(1,3) and y=(1,6) members are also indistinguishable.

You are still missing that according to pseudo-metric space x and y are indistinguishable AND distinct, as follows:
Unlike a metric space, points in a pseudometric space need not be distinguishable; that is, one may have d(x,y) = 0 for distinct values x≠y
Points are not any member, they are exactly the smallest existing members, and this property is significant, so your "(you may call its members points if that comforts you)" nonsense simply demonstrates your ignorance about members that have the property of the smallest existing things.

Furthermore, you actually claimed that points are not involved in pseudo-metric space, according to this question:

..and for that matter, where are points mentioned in it all?

It demonstrates that you do not read the considered subject ( in this case http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudometric_space ) before you reply.
Are not (1,3) and (1,6) distinct elements of A? Is not the distance between them 0?
(1,3) and (1,6) are distinct members of A and your abs(1-1)=0 ignores the fact that these members are at least A={(1,3),(1,6)} such that |A|=2, or in other words, you can't break the members into pieces , because according to the notion of set theory, the identity of a given member is defined as a whole.

In this case the wholes are two distinct points that have distance 3 between them in 2-dimensional space.

Moreover, if abs(1-1)=0 is considered as distance, then also abs(3-6)=3 is considered as distance, or in other words, there is no 0 distance between (1,3) and (1,6) members of A set.
 
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It demonstrates that you do not read the considered subject ( in this case http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudometric_space ) before you reply.
The application is not there and you never find an instance where a problem must be solved with pseudometrics. But I give you a clue. A sphere has two distinct points N and S (North and South). When you reduce the dimension of the sphere to 2-dim without junking N xor S, then there is a zero distance between N and S.

The difference between pseudometrics and metrics is entirely topological. That is, a pseudometric is a metric if and only if the topology it generates is T0 (i.e. distinct points are topologically distinguishable).

image.php

Sit down, Waldo!
 
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..., then there is a zero distance between N and S.

EDIT:

..., then there no two things like S and N, because:

1) If S and N are distinct, then so is the zero distance between them, and in this case we have 3 distinct things.

2) If S and N are indistinguishable, then so is the zero distance between them, and in this case we have a 1 distinct thing.


Pseudometrics is entirely nonsense as clearly also seen in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7203810&postcount=15474 exactly because it asserts that S and N are indistinguishable AND distinct.

epix, you take pieces of information and use them without the needed knowledge that enables to gather them into a one comprehensive framework.

Once again you quote things without their reference.
 
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I would add that if jsfisher is a reliable example of Modern Math reasoning, we can clearly understand why he can't get OM.

1) He does not understand the difference between 0-dimensional element and 1-dimensional element.

2) He can't comprehend membership in terms of Locality (x in XOR out w.r.t S) or Non-locality (x in AND out w.r.t S).

3) He claims that "x in AND out w.r.t S" is a contradiction but "x and y are indistinguishable AND distinct" is consistent.
 
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Also it has to be stressed that a point (and a point is a 0-dimensional element, no matter how many coordinates a used to define it) can't be indistinguishable AND distinct w.r.t any given point, because then they are belong AND do not belong to a given 0-dimensional space, which is a property that only a given k>0-dimensional element has.

Once again we see how Modern Math prevents form one's mind the understand the difference between Locality and Non-locality right at the level of 0-dimensional elements, and it does it by braking the coordinates that define the points, which is simply nonsense because if one breaks the coordinates that define a given point, he\she does not have a point at all, and no definition about points is possible anymore.

Furthermore, let's see how jsfisher uses its traditional reasoning in order to define a pseudo-metric space by using only one coordinate that define the considered points, for example A={(a),(b)} such that "|a-b|=0" AND "(a) is distinct from (b) and vice versa".
 
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I would add that if jsfisher is a reliable example of Modern Math reasoning, we can clearly understand why he can't get OM.

You presume too much, doron. I do understand a fair amount of Mathematics, and I also understand a fair about of the nonsense you pedal as OM. However, what I can see in your nonsense--something to which you are totally blind--is its contradiction, inconsistency, and just plain irrelevance.

We are still waiting for something relevant, doron. Got anything?
 
You presume too much, doron. I do understand a fair amount of Mathematics, and I also understand a fair about of the nonsense you pedal as OM. However, what I can see in your nonsense--something to which you are totally blind--is its contradiction, inconsistency, and just plain irrelevance.

We are still waiting for something relevant, doron. Got anything?
Another typical reply of jsfisher, which avoids detailed replies to:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7233789&postcount=15527

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7233941&postcount=15529

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7234231&postcount=15530

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7234821&postcount=15531
 
In http://www.kahany.com/mathematics/metricspace.html we define this:

It is always an application that decides our choice of an axiom-set and the flavor of the mathematics used. There is nothing inherently right or wrong about one mathematical system as against another based on a different axiom-set. One application may require us to work in a metric space, while another may require a pseudo-metric. Our mathematics must bend to the will of Mother Nature.
The problem is that pseudo-metric space is inherently wrong, without any need to compare it to other axiomatic systems, simply because according to pseudo-metric space a pair of points are indistinguishable AND distinct, which is a contradiction.

"Mother nature" does not support contradiction.

Let's look at http://ai.stanford.edu/~ang/papers/icml04-onlinemetric.pdf (the end of page 2) :
... we predict that the pair is dissimilar. Otherwise, we say that the pair is similar.
In other words, if a given pair is similar, for example (1,1), then there is redundancy between them, which is essentially different than "nothing between 1 and 1" that is actually (1).

Anyway if 1 is used in order to define the existence of 0-dimensional element, and there is redundancy between 1 and 1, then since 0 distance is also an 0-dimensional element, we actually have redundancy among 3 0-dimensional elements.

Pseudo-metric reasoning misses it, because it is focused only on the contradiction of "similar (indistinguishable)" AND "dissimilar (distinct)".

Also be aware that Pseudo-metric reasoning does not work on (a) form, which is less than a pair.
 
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Please be aware that there are applications which use Pseudo-metric reasoning but this is like "using a fork in order to put a butter on a slice of bread", it can be done, but one misses the right understanding and efficient functionality of both knife and fork.
 
We are still waiting for something relevant, doron. Got anything?
Start by the relevancy of the irreducibility of 1-dimensional element into a 0-dimensional element, and the non-extendability of 0-dimensional element into 1-dimensional element (there is no homeomorphism between them).

By understanding these simple facts, please research the real-line.
 
The problem is that pseudo-metric space is inherently wrong, without any need to compare it to other axiomatic systems, simply because according to pseudo-metric space a pair of points are indistinguishable AND distinct, which is a contradiction.

"Mother nature" does not support contradiction.
Really? Consider two distinct points S and M in natural 3-dim space. The distance between both points can never be equal to zero as seen below.

300px-Geometry_of_a_Total_Solar_Eclipse.svg.png


Under special circumstances, when both points appear in the local 2-dim viewing frame, the distance between both points can become zero, otherwise there is no eclipse.

M_Id_95248_Total_Solar_eclipse.jpg


Constellations are also mapped in 2-dim space where the possible superimposition of two distinct stars results in zero difference.

It's remarkable that your in-kitchen acquired stereotypes failed to guide you toward grasping the simple concepts of advanced topology.

pancake%20plate.jpg


When the pancake eclipses the plate, one mind thinks syrup, the other thinks pseudo-metric space. Yours thinks syrup every time pancakes are served.
 
Under special circumstances, when both points appear in the local 2-dim viewing frame, the distance between both points can become zero, otherwise there is no eclipse.
Wrong, the points in 2-dimensional space have two coordinates each, and there is 0 distance between 2 points only of there is actually a one pair of coordinates, or in other words, only a one point.

For example, by set theory {(1,3),(1,3)}={(1,3)} where (1,3) is a single point in a 2-dimensional space.

It is amazing that you can't get such a simple fact.
 
Did you think we were lacking examples of what I was talking about?
What do you mean?

Do you wish to say that you can't start by real-line's fundamental research, which is based on the irreducibility of 1-dimensional element into 0-dimensional element, and the non-extendability of 0-dimensional into 1-dimensional element, under co-existence?
 
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What do you mean?

Do you wish to say that you can't start by real-line's fundamental research, which is based on the irreducibility of 1-dimensional element into 0-dimensional element, and the non-extendability of 0-dimensional into 1-dimensional element, under co-existence?

No. Oddly enough, and I can understand it if you have difficulty grasping the concept, what I said was what I meant to say.
 
No. Oddly enough, and I can understand it if you have difficulty grasping the concept, what I said was what I meant to say.

And what you meant to say if you can't research the real-line as 1-dim;0-dim co-existence (this is a fundamental research, so it can't be odd, such that if you grasp it you can deal with more complex stuff) ?

EDIT:

You still can't have any meaningful thing to say about the considered subject, as clearly can be seen in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7211050&postcount=15493 .
 
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Wrong, the points in 2-dimensional space have two coordinates each, and there is 0 distance between 2 points only of there is actually a one pair of coordinates, or in other words, only a one point.

For example, by set theory {(1,3),(1,3)}={(1,3)} where (1,3) is a single point in a 2-dimensional space.

It is amazing that you can't get such a simple fact.
You are definitely lost to Reason. What do you think that the word "pseudo" means? In the case of the eclipse, the 2-dim viewing space is a pseudo-space to the 3-dim space where the points were actually drawn into.

Since you dislike anything "pseudo-" excepting your attempt to run over the math world with your locOMobile, you are free to trash the following computation of the pseudo-range.

pseudo-range.gif


In which line does the bug crawl along?
 
What do you mean?

Do you wish to say that you can't start by real-line's fundamental research, which is based on the irreducibility of 1-dimensional element into 0-dimensional element, and the non-extendability of 0-dimensional into 1-dimensional element, under co-existence?
Since you can't extend 0-dim object into 1-dim object, you can't increase the magnitude of a 1-dim object.

The line segment

A__________B

can't be extended to

A______________________B'

coz you can't drag 0-dim point B to the right.

It follows that the axiomatic framework of the OM allows only shuffling objects of a constant magnitude around. In case of the size in general, the OM is bound to go extinct due to the obstacle in breeding -- no enlargement happening. Good.

:p
 
And what you meant to say if you can't research the real-line as 1-dim;0-dim co-existence (this is a fundamental research, so it can't be odd, such that if you grasp it you can deal with more complex stuff) ?
Write that out again in English, and I'll have a go at understanding what you're on about.

EDIT:

You still can't have any meaningful thing to say about the considered subject, as clearly can be seen in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7211050&postcount=15493 .

Now you're linking to a post which just has a link to another post...

Please state plainly just one useful thing that has been done with OM.
 

Repeatedly posting links to some of your silliest posts doesn't challenge in any way the substance of my post: You mis-assume what I know and understand of your fantastical OM. You fail to demonstrate any relevance for your fantastical OM.
 
Let's make it simple for you:

"stretched 0-dim" is "different than 0-dim".

"totally reduced 1-dim" is "different than 1-dim".

Let me make this simple for you:

That just makes your "stretched 0-dim" not “0-dim”. So how many “dim”s does it have now?

Also it it just makes your "totally reduced 1-dim" not “1-dim”. So how many “dim”s does it have now.

Trying to sweep your assertions that your "stretched 0-dim" becomes your “1-dim” and your "totally reduced 1-dim" becomes your “0-dim" under the carpet as hidden assumptions isn’t going to help you.


The difference is saved under co-existence and prevents homeomorphism between 0-dim and 1-dim spaces.

Then perhaps you shouldn’t have been claiming that your "stretched 0-dim" becomes your “1-dim” and your "totally reduced 1-dim" becomes your “0-dim".

Therefore under co-existence there is always 1-dimensional space between more than one 0-dimensional element, which prevents the existence of more than one 0-dimensional element in the same 0-dimensional space.

Nope not in a descrete space.



Let's generalize it:

Let’s correct it:

1) 0-dimension is the smallest existing dimensional space.

Again 0 dimensions isn’t a dimensional space.


2) x = 0 approaching ∞ and x<y, where y approaching ∞.
“0” isn’t “approaching” anything (even 0) it is just, well 0. If you wanted to say that x is value approcing infinity and that “x<y, you could have just said it..

3) There is always y-dimensional space between more than one x-dimensional element, which prevents the existence of more than one x-dimensional element in the same x-dimensional space.

There is no space between the intervals [3,5) and [5,6) in the reals and the intervals [3,5] and [4,6] overlap each other and the interval [4,5].

As usual you are just spouting nonsensical gibberish.


Since 0-dimensional element (known as a point) is an existing thing, it can't be used as the negation of the existence of Dimension.

It isn’t, the lack of dimension is used to define a point.

In other words, the assertion that a point is the negation of Dimension is equivalent to the assertion that an existing thing is the negation of Existence.

Nope, “the negation of Dimension” negates, well, dimension while the “negation of Existence” negates existence

It is a different version of “Hilbert's Hotel”. Do you have some problems to understand the word different?

Again its not any “version of “Hilbert's Hotel”” because you just don’t understand and deliberately ignore the details of “Hilbert's Hotel”

Actuality is not limited to existing things, for example:

The actuality of nothing can be considered as the negation of Existence.

Since now your claiming your “nothing” does not exist, that would mean that there is always something.



Since you have problems to get the actuality of nothing, you can't comprehend assertions like "There is nothing between A and B".

Well since you have just asserted your that your “nothing” does not exist, that would mean that there is something “between A and B”. Well what is it?
 
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You are definitely lost to Reason. What do you think that the word "pseudo" means? In the case of the eclipse, the 2-dim viewing space is a pseudo-space to the 3-dim space where the points were actually drawn into.

Since you dislike anything "pseudo-" excepting your attempt to run over the math world with your locOMobile, you are free to trash the following computation of the pseudo-range.

[qimg]http://www.metaresearch.org/solar%20system/gps/pseudo-range.gif[/qimg]

In which line does the bug crawl along?

Thanks epix, I was wondering how I was going to calculate my wet and dry obliquity factors.
 
The actuality of nothing can be considered as the negation of Existence.
The actuality of nothing? What kind of kitchen talk is that? You're not peeling potatoes; you are in the process of submerging yourself into the deep philosophical waters where existence and non-existence dwells and that requires all the rigor available. Out of my undying kindness and love for OM, I help you this time to reformulate your thought, but then you are on your own.

1) There exists nothing.
2) Nothing is the negation of existence.
3) Therefore nothing doesn't exist.

A necessary at the most but not the least corollary: (1) contradicts (3) and therefore (1) must be reformulated to negate the contradiction to preserve the truthfulness of your relation. My recommendation is

M) There exists non-existence.
A) Non-existence is the negation of existence.
E) Therefore non-existence doesn't exist in the presence of non-existence.
D) Therefore non-existence does exist in the presence of non-existence.

It's all very simple. Just learn to elucidate your thoughts with proper expressive means as shown in M, A, E and D.
 
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Thanks epix, I was wondering how I was going to calculate my wet and dry obliquity factors.
Actually if you look at the formulae (note the educated plural I use :cool:), both factors are reciprocal to the unit semi-circle, which is f(x) = Sqr(1 - x2). In those formulae (there is no language like the Latin language) there is a bunch of parameters substituting for x. Maybe the semi-circle is some kind of pseudo-sunset where the visible semicircle is "dry" and the one under the horizon line is "wet," when you watch it from your patio situated west of the Pacific Coast Highway.
 
You are definitely lost to Reason.
Well, this is exactly your problem about this subject.
What do you think that the word "pseudo" means?

"Pseudo" means that Y looks like X but actually it is not X.

In this case X = "metric".

In metric space it is reasonable to use concepts like distanceand point , which are meaningless as a generalization in the case of pseudo-metric space, so the use of concepts like points is misleading, because points are the most accurate expression of position or location of some given space.

In order to avoid confusion, concepts like distance and point must first be replaced by more general concepts like samenesss and difference.

By using this generalization, a given point is the smallest existing thing that naturally has 0 distance as an essential property of the id of its existence (0 distance is actually its identification or its sameness).

So pseudo-metric space can't use D((a,b),(a,c)) (where D() is a notation of distance) by defining a,b,c in terms of distance without leading to confusion.

In order to avoid confusing, distance has to be replaced by samenesss and difference (where distance and point are some particular case of this generalization).

Now let's give some general examples:

A={(a,b),(a,c)}, where a is the sameness of A members and b,c are the difference of A members.

Be aware of the fact that in terms of sameness at most one notation is used (a), and in terms of difference at least two notations (b,c) are used.

By understanding the co-existence of sameness AND difference, the following contradiction (points are indistinguishable AND distinct) as given by
points in a pseudometric space need not be distinguishable; that is, one may have d(x,y) = 0 for distinct values x≠y ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudometric_space )
is simply avoided, because the used concepts (sameness;difference) are a generalization of concepts like distance and point.

Let's see how the particular cases of points and distance are used by pseudo metric space without deriving into contradiction:

Let A={(a,b),(a,c)}, such that D((a,b),(a,c)) (where D() is a notation of distance), where a is a point and b,c is time.

So, we get the same point in different times (time b, or time c).

By using the generalization of the co-existence of sameness AND difference a can be the same time in different points (point b, or point c).

epix said:
Under special circumstances, when both points appear in the local 2-dim viewing frame, the distance between both points can become zero, otherwise there is no eclipse.
All you did is to ignore b,c difference, which leads to partial understanding of what is really going on.

By following your reasoning, we are living in a flat universe.

By not ignoring a,b,c, a is sameness b,c is difference such that "points (a,b),(a,c) are distinct" AND "there is no 0 distance between them".
 
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Actually if you look at the formulae (note the educated plural I use :cool:), both factors are reciprocal to the unit semi-circle, which is f(x) = Sqr(1 - x2). In those formulae (there is no language like the Latin language) there is a bunch of parameters substituting for x. Maybe the semi-circle is some kind of pseudo-sunset where the visible semicircle is "dry" and the one under the horizon line is "wet," when you watch it from your patio situated west of the Pacific Coast Highway.
Nice epix, your "dry" "wet" sun fits to your pseudo metric flat universe.
 
Doron, what can you do with OM?
I can develop the mathematical science, such that the term "mathematical branches" gets its actual meaning.

In can be achieved only of both cross-contexts reasoning AND context-dependent reasoning are used.
 
By following your reasoning, we are living in a flat universe.
You are incapable of generating one near-rational thought given your natural resistance to do so. Our universe, especially the Milky Way, can be viewed locally as 2-dim space when it is desirable for a purpose and it has been done so. Gravitational lensing can be detected only through 2-dim viewing, for example. In the abstract domain, in order to investigate the nature of a 1-dim object, namely the length, 2-dim arrangement needs to be taken into a consideration, like in the case of the Pythagorean theorem. You can muse over the length of the hypotenuse ad infinitum your style, but unless you expand and include 2-dim objects, you won't figure the length.

28108414.gif


See the colored areas? These are 2-dim objects.

pythagorean-theorem-formula.jpg
 
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Let me make this simple for you:

That just makes your "stretched 0-dim" not “0-dim”. So how many “dim”s does it have now?

Also it it just makes your "totally reduced 1-dim" not “1-dim”. So how many “dim”s does it have now.
In both cases you have at least two dimensional spaces, where the smaller dimension is local w.r.t the greater dimension and the greater dimension is non-local w.r.t to the smaller dimension.

Nope not in a descrete space.
There is no more then one element if there is no co-existence between at least two different dimensional spaces.

You still do not comprehend the result of actuality of nothing between A and B.


Again 0 dimensions isn’t a dimensional space.
Yes I know, it is actually a pink snail.



“0” isn’t “approaching” anything (even 0) it is just, well 0. If you wanted to say that x is value approcing infinity and that “x<y, you could have just said it..
What I actually say is that there is a domain starting with 0 and approaching infinity, where there are x and y variables in that domain, such that x<y.


There is no space between the intervals [3,5) and [5,6) in the reals and the intervals [3,5] and [4,6] overlap each other and the interval [4,5].

x<y are not limited to the real-line so your reply has nothing to do with the fact that x<y and y-dimensional space exists between x-dimensional elements, where x and y approaching infinity.

It isn’t, the lack of dimension is used to define a point.
In that case "dimension has nothing to do with points", which is a false proposition based on your "reasoning".

Nope, “the negation of Dimension” negates, well, dimension while the “negation of Existence” negates existence
Only if one can't generalize what he\she reads.


Again its not any “version of “Hilbert's Hotel”” because you just don’t understand and deliberately ignore the details of “Hilbert's Hotel”
Once again, you demonstrate your inability the understand the proposition "different version".


Since now your claiming your “nothing” does not exist, that would mean that there is always something.
If something is considered as the negation of nothing, then without the actuality of nothing, something can't be defined.

Be aware that actual and existence are not synonyms.

Well since you have just asserted your that your “nothing” does not exist, that would mean that there is something “between A and B”. Well what is it?
You still do not get the actuality of nothing, and as a result you can't comprehend the difference of the following:

1) nothing between A and B, is resulted by at most one thing.

2) something between A and B, is resulted by at least two things.
 
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