Deeper than primes

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The Man said:
Oh and making your definition of “complete” the same definition (by essentially simply replacing the word “infinite” with “complete”)
I replaced “infinite” with “incomplete”, please read it again.

The Man said:
The simple statement that ‘only “infinite” sets are “complete”” in your notions states clearly and explicitly what you mean without the pretence of thinking you’re defining a different aspect with the same definition you use for “infinite”.
I agree with you.

It can be done as follows:

C is a set.

Axiom:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite AND incomplete.

Theorem: If C is infinite, then C is incomplete.

Proof: derived directly from the axiom.
 
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Is this a revelation to you that {1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2} and {2, 1} actually have the same elements in terms of type?

Being the same in terms of type is based on the ability to distinguish between them, where redundancy and uncertainty have 0 value.

So according to your reasoning "the same" is actually limited to 0-Uncertainy x 0-Rerundancy case.

I see you are again using phrases that you are unable to define. Be that as it may, real Mathematics continues unharmed despite its ignorance of all the nonsense posed by Doronetics.
 
The axiom of incompleteness:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is incomplete.

Either this is an attempt to define the term, incomplete, in which case it is not an axiom, or it lacks a definition for incomplete. Either way, it fails.

By the way, I find it amazingly curious that you have ridiculed the upside-down A's that anyone else uses, but you are perfectly happy to use them (incorrectly) yourself.

You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers (even after all the other elements have been picked).


I replaced “infinite” with “incomplete”, please read it again.

More word shifting? You need to define what you mean by incomplete. You need to define what you mean by to pick.
 
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I see you are again using phrases that you are unable to define. Be that as it may, real Mathematics continues unharmed despite its ignorance of all the nonsense posed by Doronetics.
I see you are again using only objects that have 0-Ucertainty x 0-Rudundancy , and as a result you do not distinguish between,
for example {1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2} and {2, 1}.

No wonder that you can't get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7593948&postcount=16389 .
 
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EDIT:
Either this is an attempt to define the term, incomplete, in which case it is not an axiom, or it lacks a definition for incomplete. Either way, it fails.

By the way, I find it amazingly curious that you have ridiculed the upside-down A's that anyone else uses, but you are perfectly happy to use them (incorrectly) yourself.
You simply do not understand that "for all" is actually not satisfied if (all x in C are picked) AND (no x can be picked twice).

Let's upgrade it:

For all x in C, if (all x in C are already picked) AND (no x can be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.


jsfisher said:
You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers (even after all the other elements have been picked)
jsfisher said:
More word shifting? You need to define what you mean by incomplete. You need to define what you mean by to pick.
jsfisher,

1) How exactly you are using a phrase like "You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers" without understanding what a "pick" is?

2) Incompleteness, in the case of sets (which are based only on 0-Uncertainty x 0-Redundancy case), is the non-satisfactory of the term "all".
 
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EDIT:

You simply do not understand that "for all" is actually not satisfied if (all x in C are picked) AND (no x can be picked twice).

Let's upgrade it:

For all x in C, if (all x in C are already picked) AND (no x can be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.




jsfisher,

1) How exactly you are using a phrase like "You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers" without understanding what a "pick" is?

2) Incompleteness, in the case of sets (which are based only on 0-Uncertainty x 0-Redundancy case), is the non-satisfactory of the term "all".



Ah! The circle begins to close.
 
Ah! The circle begins to close.
And actual close (in terms of set of existing distinct objects) is possible only if the amount of C existing members is finite, as seen in the following diagram:

4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg
 
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And actual close (in terms of set of existing distinct objects) is possible only if the amount of C existing members is finite, as seen in the following diagram:

[qimg]http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4039/4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg?zz=1[/qimg]

What you have there is a load of balls.
 
What you have there is a load of balls.
If there is a finite amount of points along them, then they are closed balls, otherwise they are unclosed balls.

Actually what I wish to show is that verbal_symbolic skills, expressed as:

"For all x in C, if (all x in C are already picked) AND (no x can be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete."

can't be understood without using also visual_spatial skills, expressed as:

4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg


and vise versa.

In other words, verbal_symbolic AND visual_spatial skills are needed in order to understand (in this case) infinite collections of distinct objects.

Also please look at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372 .

EDIT:

Let's improve the verbal_symbolic expression (it cannot be done if the visual_spatial skills are not used in the "background"):

C is a set.

If (x in C is picked) AND (all not-x in C are picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.
 
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There is no requirement to not pick again the first picked object, if all the objects are picked.

For example, it can be done in the case of a non-empty finite set.

But it can't be done in the case of a non-empty infinite set.

This is exactly what the axiom of infinite set asserts:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite.

The Man, you simply replied only to a picked part of what I wrote, by ignoring the next part, here it is again:



and you ignored:


Next time please read the whole post before you reply.


Nope I didn't ignore it, but evidently you would like to simply ignore your

The n pick is any member that is not any of the previously picked members.

requirement for any finite set. So for any finite set you could pick the same member as many times as you like but can not for an infinite set. Making your excluding pervious picks requirement conditional on whether the set is finite or not simply means that your purported " axiom of infinite set" reduces to "If set C is not finite or empty then it is infinite"

Took you 20 some odd years for you to come up with that?


I replaced “infinite” with “incomplete”, please read it again.

Indeed you did, so now finite sets are "complete" since you do not exclude pervious 'picks' from the current 'pick' for them?

I agree with you.

It can be done as follows:

C is a set.

Axiom:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite AND incomplete.

Theorem: If C is infinite, then C is incomplete.

Proof: derived directly from the axiom.

Again since your exclusion of pervious picks is conditional on the set being infinite then this reduces to " If set C is not finite or empty then it is infinite and incomplete".


Took you 20 some odd years for you to come up with that?


Though as jsfisher notes you still need to define what you mean by " incomplete" as currently, for you, it would simply mean infinite.
 
No problem, it can done as follows:

C is a set.

Axiom:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite AND incomplete.
You can take any axiom and assert that it is a theorem. If your assertion is correct, you will be able to prove or disprove the theorem. Your statements usually don't give anyone the opportunity to take this approach, coz their construction is rendered in terms taken from Doronetics, which are left undefined or poorly defined. You should call your ideas propositions to avoid misrepresentation of terms.

How do you feel about the following change?

C is an infinite set.
Proposition: For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is incomplete.

The above change gives someone a legitimate opportunity to declare the proposition a false statement with the obligatory follow up of proving it.

Your version defines C as a set, so it can be any set, and that includes the finite version. Be that the case, how can the process of selection without replacement turn finite set C into infinite set C? :confused:

(You know, that question is actually a potent weapon that can kill the adjective "Almighty," which God sometimes wears, dead and done with.)
 
So for any finite set you could pick the same member as many times as you like but can not for an infinite set.
More than once, yes.

It is a conclusion derived from the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

Yep, just back to Doron's old habit of trying to define sets in terms of lists
Please look at the axiom above, and explicitly show how it is related only to lists.

" If set C is not finite or empty then it is infinite and incomplete".
This is circular reasoning, since you have used "not finite" under "if" , and "infinite" under "then".

Took you 20 some odd years for you to come up with that?
It took you less than a minute to come up with this circular reasoning.
 
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Yep, just back to Doron's old habit of trying to define sets in terms of lists
Have you missed the unstated definition implied throughout?

SET - { } and anything that fits in there.

:D
 
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If your assertion is correct, you will be able to prove or disprove the theorem.
An axiom is a true assertion if it does not lead into contradiction.

Please show the contradiction in the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.
 
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An axiom is a true assertion if it does not lead into contradiction.

Please show the contradiction in the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

I won't show you anything, coz I don't accept your definition of "axiom."

Your proposition includes an intriguing feature though in "infinite AND incomplete." Since there is no restriction on C, the intricacy lies in

*, !, %, &, K, anythingyoucanimagine, $, anythingyoucan'timagine, ...

being an infinite and incomplete collection made of "everything but x," and "x" with no clue what that x might be.

Doron, do you regard

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...

as an incomplete infinite collection of naturals?
 
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I won't show you anything, coz I don't accept your definition of "axiom."

Your proposition includes an intriguing feature though in "infinite AND incomplete." Since there is no restriction on C, the intricacy lies in

*, !, %, &, K, anythingyoucanimagine, $, anythingyoucan'timagine, ...

being an infinite and incomplete collection made of "everything but x," and "x" with no clue what that x might be.

Again, what I wish to show is that verbal_symbolic skills, expressed, for example, as:

"C is a set."

"If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete."

can't be understood without using also visual_spatial skills, expressed, for example, as:

4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg


and vise versa.

In other words, verbal_symbolic AND visual_spatial skills are needed in order to understand (in this case) infinite collections of distinct objects.

Also please look at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372 .

epix said:
Doron, do you regard

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...

as an incomplete infinite collection of naturals?
Yes, this is exactly what follows from this axiom (by the way, not everyone agree that 0 is a natural number).

epix said:
being an infinite and incomplete collection made of "everything but x," and "x" with no clue what that x might be.
x is some distinct member of set C (no matter if C is finite or not).

epix said:
Since there is no restriction on C
There is restriction on C: All its members are distinct.
 
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Originally Posted by epix
Doron, do you regard

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...

as an incomplete infinite collection of naturals?

Yes, this is exactly what follows from this axiom (by the way, not everyone agree that 0 is a natural number).

Why do you regard those few naturals as an infinite incomplete collection? Is it because 4, 5, and 6 are missing from the line up? Look again.

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, 4, 5, 6, ...

I didn't say that the infinite collection was ordered; that the naturals were organized in the ascending order.

The standard definition of a collection of items called the set allows the members of the set be organized in no particular order. Your definition of the set is very likely different. Considering set

F = {apple, orange, banana, lemon},

I'm not really keen on understanding the mechanism that Doronetics uses to organize the members of F into a proper order. I'm pretty happy with the fact that I can count the members to arrive at |F| = 4 and with the fact that one of the members contains lots of citric acid.
 
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Why do you regard those few naturals as an infinite incomplete collection?
Because you used ", ..." at the end of some given natural numbers, which means that the given set is infinite.

Since it is infinite it is also incomplete, according to my axiom.

I didn't say that the infinite collection was ordered; that the naturals were organized in the ascending order.
Order has no significance among the members of a given set (where a set is a collection of distinct objects).

The standard definition of a collection of items called the set allows the members of the set be organized in no particular order. Your definition of the set is very likely different.
Wrong, it uses the same notion about the insignificance of order among distinct members of a given set.

If you look at the diagram in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 you can see that the points are not picked in some particular order, whether the collection of distinct points is finite, or not.

EDIT:

Again.

As for no order, for example, (AB,AB) really has no order (which is not the same as "order has no significance") exactly because the considered framework is under superposition of identities of 2-Uncertainty x 2-Redundancy Distinction Tree.

According to this example (without a loss of generality) sets are based on Distinction State (A,B) = (B,A) under F(1,1).

Please be aware of the fact that (A,B) is just a particular case of Frame (1,1) under 2-Redundancy x 2-Uncertainty Distinction Tree, as follows:

Code:
(AB,AB) (AB,A)  (AB,B)  (AB)    (A,A)   (B,B)   (A,B)   (A)     (B)     ()

A * *   A * *   A * .   A * .   A * *   A . .   A * .   A * .   A . .   A . .
  | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |
B *_*   B *_.   B *_*   B *_.   B ._.   B *_*   B ._*   B ._.   B *_.   B ._.

(2,2) = (AB,AB)
(2,1) = (AB,A),(AB,B)
(2,0)=  (AB)
[COLOR="magenta"][B](1,1)[/B][/COLOR] = (A,A),(B,B), [COLOR="magenta"][B](A,B)[/B][/COLOR]
(1,0)=  (A),(B)
(0,0)=  ()

Since the members of {A,B} are based on the particular case of DS (A,B) under F (1,1), and since {A,B} has 0-Uncertainy and 0-Redundancy, then its members are pick-able no matter if {A,B} = {B,A} (or in other words, order has no significance).


C is a set (where set is a collection of distinct objects, which is not empty if it has pick-able objects).

Here is my axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

As can be seen, no particular order is involved here.

Again, more about order:

Let's assume that a given collection of distinct objects (known also as set) has no order.

In that case non of its objects can be picked and used, because any attempt to pick something from a given collection of distinct objects, must be the first pick, and if there is the first pick, then there is the second pick, etc ...

In other words, if order does not exist among collections of distinct objects, then their distinct objects are not available.

For example, the expression "647+23" does not exist, since the objects of the collection of natural numbers are not available.

So, "No order" is not the same as "Order has no significance".
 
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And the difference between infinite and (Doron) incomplete is what, exactly?
There is actual infinity, which is non-local AND non-composed, and there is potential infinity as understood, for example, in terms of collection of distinct objects, which is incomplete with respect to actual infinity.

The notion of potential infinity and its incompleteness, is explained in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 and http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420.

Again, no amount (finite or infinite) of ....... etc. has the power of continuum of ______
 
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In other words, if order does not exist among collections of distinct objects, then their distinct objects are not available.

For example, the expression "647+23" does not exist, since the objects of the collection of natural numbers are not available.
Available for what?

If there is no corresponding set of counting numbers organized in the strict ascending order, which bijects the distinct members of the primary set, then there is no way to select the 647th and the 23th member of the primary set, if the property responsible for the distinction (color, shape, and so on) cannot be used and the order in the set is left as the only option.

Your example doesn't make sense, coz the definition of N guarantees the existence of 647 and 23 in the set.
 
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Merely claiming the existence of something does not define it. Please answer zooterkin's question in a meaningful way.
Again, "define it" for you is done by using only verbal_symbolic skills.

By this restriction you can't comprehend definitions that are based on verbal_symbolic skills AND visual_spatial skills, as explained in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 and http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420.

Also you ignore again http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372.
 
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Your example doesn't make sense, coz the definition of N guarantees the existence of 647 and 23 in the set.
Order has no significance among sets, for example:

N = {1,2,3,4,5,...} = {5,1,3,2,4,...}, where the only restriction is the strict distinction of the members.

jsfisher stronger claim of "no order" is criticized by me in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420 , so if you have something to say about order, the right address for criticism is jfisher's stronger claim of "no order", which indeed has no sense.
 
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Originally Posted by epix
Your example doesn't make sense, coz the definition of N guarantees the existence of 647 and 23 in the set.
Order has no significance among sets, for example:

N = {1,2,3,4,5,...} = {5,1,3,2,4,...}, where the only restriction is the strict distinction of the members.
So why did you threaten with
In other words, if order does not exist among collections of distinct objects, then their distinct objects are not available.

For example, the expression "647+23" does not exist, since the objects of the collection of natural numbers are not available.

Btw, what are "the objects of the collection of natural numbers?" I can imagine a collection of natural numbers, like 13, 18, 666, but what are the objects?

You surely have visions that Ezekiel would envy you.
:rolleyes:
 
Originally Posted by epix
Your example doesn't make sense, coz the definition of N guarantees the existence of 647 and 23 in the set.

So why did you threaten with
epix my claim is that "no order" is not the same as "order has no significance", and my claim about this subject is explained in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420, which you still do not comprehend (according to your last replies about this subject).

Btw, what are "the objects of the collection of natural numbers?" I can imagine a collection of natural numbers, like 13, 18, 666, but what are the objects?
Infinitely many distinct objects of the same type as 13, 18, 666.

According to http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 such collection is incomplete (please look also at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601675&postcount=16422).
 
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Again, "define it" for you is done by using only verbal_symbolic skills.

This is untrue, but since you are so wrapped up in your confusion, you cannot see that. The issue is entirely that you, doron, are proficient in both verbal and visual gibberish, and little else. Your total inability to express yourself in any form of communication is your limitation, not ours. Just scribbling dots, curves, and arrows does not a definition make.
 
Just scribbling dots, curves, and arrows does not a definition make.
It is not "Just scribbling dots, curves, and arrows".

These "dots, curves, and arrows" are supported by verbal_symbolic skills, such that verbal_symbolic AND visual_spatial skills are used as a one comprehensive framework (as can be seen, for example, in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 and http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420).

Since you have no ability to get reasoning that is based also on visual_spatial skills, you get it as "Just scribbling dots, curves, and arrows".

Once again you ignore http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372.

You have failed to get

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7426018&postcount=16169

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7511706&postcount=16304

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7535018&postcount=16319

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7540470&postcount=16339

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7550576&postcount=16349

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7556365&postcount=16358

exactly because you get Mathematics only in terms of verbal_symbolic skills.

This is untrue,
It is true, and your "Just scribbling dots, curves, and arrows" reply clearly demonstrates my argument about your inability to use visual_spatial skills in addition to verbal_symbolic skills at the basis of the Mathematical science reasoning.
 
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epix my claim is that "no order" is not the same as "order has no significance", and my claim about this subject is explained in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420, which you still do not comprehend (according to your last replies about this subject).
Your link doesn't include the statement that you disagree with; that is, "no order" is the same as "order has no significance."

Infinitely many distinct objects of the same type as 13, 18, 666.

I wonder about how large is the obfuscation factor in the way you present your ideas . . .
So you've defined those "objects" as "infinitely many distinct objects of the same type as the natural numbers. That's one helluva way to call the naturals.

How do you define the word "incomplete" with respect to the topic discussed?
 
It is not "Just scribbling dots, curves, and arrows".


You are right. You provided a lot of other gibberish, too.

How's that definition for "to pick" coming along? Or maybe the one for "incomplete"? Or maybe the one for "local"? So many, many terms you abuse so freely, but never define.
 
Your link doesn't include the statement that you disagree with; that is, "no order" is the same as "order has no significance."
You are wrong, here it is:
doronshadmi said:
As for no order, for example, (AB,AB) really has no order (which is not the same as "order has no significance") exactly because the considered framework is under superposition of identities of 2-Uncertainty x 2-Redundancy Distinction Tree.


I wonder about how large is the obfuscation factor in the way you present your ideas . . .
So you've defined those "objects" as "infinitely many distinct objects of the same type as the natural numbers. That's one helluva way to call the naturals.
epix, look what you wrote:
Btw, what are "the objects of the collection of natural numbers?" I can imagine a collection of natural numbers, like 13, 18, 666, but what are the objects?
and my answer to what you wrote is short and simple:
doronshadmi said:
Infinitely many distinct objects of the same type as 13, 18, 666.


How do you define the word "incomplete" with respect to the topic discussed?
By the inability of collection distinct objects to have to power of the continuum of the "host" mathematical space (for example: there is no homeomorphism between 0 dimensional space and 1 dimensional space), which is naturally non-local w.r.t the "hosted" collection.

The term "host" or "hosted" is used in order to clarify that the "host" space
is not made of the "hosted" spaces (for example: ______ (a 1 dimensional space) is not made of "_ _ _" or "......" (which are sub-objects) on it.)
 
You are right. You provided a lot of other gibberish, too.
As long as your visual_spatial skills are not used in addition to your verbal_symbolic skills, you indeed have no choice but to get my arguments as gibberish.

How's that definition for "to pick" coming along?
Again, jsfisher.

How exactly you are using a phrase like "You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers" without understanding what a "pick" is?

Or maybe the one for "incomplete"? Or maybe the one for "local"? So many, many terms you abuse so freely, but never define.
Again your problem to use verbal_symbolic AND visual_spatial skills airs its limited view.

----------

Once again you ignore http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372.

Why is that jsfisher?

----------

By following jsfisher's "no order" argument about sets, one can't use the diagonal argument:

n1 = (1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, ...)
n2 = (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...)
n3 = (0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, ...)
n4 = (1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...)
n5 = (1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, ...)
n6 = (0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, ...)
n7 = (1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, ...)
...

n0 = (0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, ...)

------------

By the way

{
(1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, ...),
(1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...),
(0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, ...),
(1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...),
(1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, ...),
(0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, ...),
(1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, ...),
...
}

clearly demonstrates how the completeness of collection of distinct objects can't be satisfied (there are always more distinct objects (no matter how many distinct objects are defined) and this "always more distinct objects" permanent state is an inherent property of any infinite collection of distinct objects (in this particular example (0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, ...) has to be added to the set, etc. ... ad infinitum ...).

Another example:

The "+1" expression of the axiom "If n is in N, then n+1 is in N" actually determines the inherent incompleteness of N.
 
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More than once, yes.

It is a conclusion derived from the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

No it’s not; it is simply a result of you explicitly restricting the option of ‘picking’ a previous ‘pick’ to finite sets.

Again please define what you mean by “incomplete” particularly considering your new additions of “x in C is picked” and “everything but x, in C is picked”. What is left to be ‘picked’ when “x in C is picked” and “everything but x, in C is picked”?

Please look at the axiom above, and explicitly show how it is related only to lists.

I’ll let you do that.

Since you’re apparently asserting now that you intend no relation only to lists, then ones previous ‘picks’ could be a set, either a proper subset of the super set or the super set itself?



This is circular reasoning, since you have used "not finite" under "if" , and "infinite" under "then".

Again it is circular simply because you apply your restriction of not ‘picking’ from pervious ‘picks’ only for sets that are not infinite (or empty) and then claim the result, that “x can't be picked twice”, is what you define as that set being infinite. If you don’t like it then I suggest you put more effort into making better assertions.

It took you less than a minute to come up with this circular reasoning.

See, once your deliberately couched and contrived langue was removed even you notice that you are simply claiming a set that you must already define as not finite and not empty is infinite, and it didn’t even take you 20 some odd years.
 
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Another example:

The "+1" expression of the axiom "If n is in N, then n+1 is in N" actually determines the inherent incompleteness of N.

Another deliberate misrepresentation would be more to the point, since the assertion is “then n+1 is in N”. Even if the assertion were “then n+1 is not in N” it wouldn’t make any difference as sets are complete simply by their definition. Again you still seem to be deliberately confusing a set for a list as a list need not be complete while a set always is complete as defined.
 
Originally Posted by epix
Your link doesn't include the statement that you disagree with; that is, "no order" is the same as "order has no significance."
You are wrong, here it is:

Originally Posted by doronshadmi
As for no order, for example, (AB,AB) really has no order (which is not the same as "order has no significance") exactly because the considered framework is under superposition of identities of 2-Uncertainty x 2-Redundancy Distinction Tree.

If I was wrong, then you disagree with yourself (follow the yellow line), but your repeated statement doesn't negate your claim. It follows that I couldn't be wrong.

You are chasing your tail; you are trying to justify your statement that honey is sweet, for example, but you can't find and present the opposing view.
 
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As long as your visual_spatial skills are not used in addition to your verbal_symbolic skills, you indeed have no choice but to get my arguments as gibberish.

The only one lacking spatial, visual, symbolic, and language skills is you, doron. Please stop projecting your inabilities onto others.


How exactly you are using a phrase like "You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers" without understanding what a "pick" is?

The sentence you quoted doesn't require I understand what you mean by "to pick", and you still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers.

That aside, are you still going to dodge the question, or will you finally explain what you mean by this whole picking process? I'm betting you won't just because it is so much easier to make wild, baseless claims if you use words that have special meanings known only to you.
 
The "+1" expression of the axiom "If n is in N, then n+1 is in N" actually determines the inherent incompleteness of N.
You're affected by the frequent use of infinity where things approach ∞; you see a sequence where more and more members are added as the membership grows unbound. That's why you regard n as the temporarily last member in the process. But if you read again related Peano axiom

Every natural number a has a natural number successor

you may realize that n doesn't have to be necessarily the last number in the sequence in a given moment and that weakens your notion of "inherent incompleteness."

In the set theory, nothing approaches anything. The space in { } is populated instantly by items that have something in common by definition. One of the questions is how many items are in there. In the case of

{2, 4, 6, 8}

where all members are divisible by 2, which is a part of the defining terms, there are 4 members and the collection is complete as indicated by the brace } in the end. When the collection looks like this

{1, 2, 3, 4, ...}

and after it is clear what the expression stands for and the definition of the collection/set is stated (it is N), the question is how many items are in there. Since the whole expression includes the closing brace }, it is complete as well. So if it is complete, how many naturals do the braces hold?

One word that desribes the quantity in question became the most popular: aleph-null

You can come up with a Doronetics-compatible word describing the quantity.

Of course, you can choose a bolder approach by setting up your own definitions, like

S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ...

and call S "infinite AND incomplete." Then you should calculate the degree of incompleteness, coz that's what I'm really curious about.
 
Another deliberate misrepresentation would be more to the point, since the assertion is “then n+1 is in N”. Even if the assertion were “then n+1 is not in N” it wouldn’t make any difference as sets are complete simply by their definition.
Your reasoning is restricted only to verbal_symbolic skills.

As a result you can't get "+1" expression, or the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

For example, you ask:
What is left to be ‘picked’ when “x in C is picked” and “everything but x, in C is picked”?
You do not understand that everything in terms of collection (for example, points) can't reach the power of the continuum of non-local object (for example, a line), and you do not understand it exactly because your visual_spatial skills are not used in addition to your verbal_symbolic skills.

Again, you do not comprehend the inability of collections of distinct objects to have to power of the continuum of the "host" mathematical space (for example: there is no homeomorphism between 0 dimensional space and 1 dimensional space), which is naturally non-local w.r.t the "hosted" collection.

The term "host" or "hosted" is used in order to clarify that the "host" space
is not made of the "hosted" spaces (for example: ______ (a 1 dimensional space) is not made of "_ _ _" or "......" (which are sub-objects) on it.)

In other words, you still do not get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 or http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601467&postcount=16420.
 
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