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Old 27th February 2013, 08:50 AM   #5332
TjW
Penultimate Amazing
 
Join Date: Mar 2005
Posts: 11,097
Originally Posted by Foster Zygote View Post
Because they cherry pick the parts of the New Testament written by authors who said the old law was nullified (ignoring the question of why their god would issue such horrifyingly evil edicts in the first place) and disregard the parts written by authors who claimed that the old law was still very much in effect.
But this is still really odd. If the argument is:

Objective morals are provided by God.
Objective morals exist.
Therefore, God.

You need to have a set of morals that are objective. Objective morals, by definition, wouldn't change with time.
Gibhor is claiming that morals have changed.
By his own argument, he's disproved the existence of God.
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