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Old 5th October 2019, 10:51 PM   #106
kellyb
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Originally Posted by xjx388 View Post
One could make the case that itís understood that if a foreign dignitary wants to influence Trump, a good way to do that would be to stay in his hotels. But if that understanding violates the emoluments clause, one could also make the case that Hillary Clinton violated the clause because one way to gain influence with her was to donate to her familyís foundation which many foreign governments did. Indeed, such an argument has been made. Newt Gingrich made that argument but really mangled it by saying it covered spouses and other distortions . But, in its analysis of Gingrichís claims, Politifact says that itís possible that the broad language of the clause would indeed cover donations to the Clinton Foundation:



My own take? Trump is violating the clause. I mean thereís no doubt he directly profits from foreign governments renting his rooms. And some governments are renting out whole blocks of rooms and not even using them...
Yes.

Clinton's defense (I'm guessing from the same article?) was:
https://www.politifact.com/punditfac...ns-clearly-vi/

Quote:
A spokesman for the Clinton Foundation certainly disagreed, calling Gingrichís accusation "a baseless leap" because Clinton was not part of her husbandís foundation while serving as a senator or secretary of state. We did not hear from Gingrich by our deadline.
Even the Clinton Foundation people seemed to agree that if she'd still personally been a member of the foundation, it would have been a violation.

The question of if her defense was valid there is an interesting question (I personally find it weaksauce) but it's not really relevant to the question of Trump's guilt.
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