Originally Posted by Monza
I've always presumed the latter one is pronounced the same as the second, the added possessive meaning conveyed by context.
So, for example, one might say "The princesses' fortune was divided among the princesses," and the meaning is pretty clear. If one finds it is not, and there's some ambiguity as to which sense is meant, you'd best change the sentence. So, for example, you might not know which is meant if you say "The king's fortune was the princesses(')", but it would be clear if you said "The princesses were the king's fortune," or "The king's fortune was that of the princesses."