Originally Posted by Distracted1
Of course the serfs and Egyptian laborers typically had more free/vacation time than their modern equivalents.
Of course buying your sex slaves is harder now so does that mean that people in the past were richer because they could buy more slaves?
Remember Agatha Christie, she at one point could never imagine being rich enough to own a car, or being too poor to have servants. The lack of servants in the modern so called "middle class" is a real change, I mean how can you really be middle class with out at least 2-3 live in servants? So am I richer than her because I have a car, or poorer because I can not afford even one live in maid?
Or it could be at its base a stupid argument.