Originally Posted by
smartcooky
Err Mosely is black, and he used the word to describe himself - he has the absolute right to use a pejorative to describe himself if he so chooses and no-one else has any right to be offended by that.
Yes, I know he is black. He is not the only person in the world who is black, however. Why does he get to use the term in a workplace that may also have other black people?
I disagree that he has the "absolute right" to use a pejorative to describe himself if the workplace
bans the word and makes it a fireable offence. Could you explain to me where this absolute right is enshrined?
Similarly, could you show me how it is that "no-one else has any right to be offended"? How are these rights distributed?
Originally Posted by
smartcooky
We've had this discussion before.
Who is this "we"? And so what if this has been discussed before?
Originally Posted by
smartcooky
I am 100% deaf in one ear. I hate the use of PC descriptions such as "hard of hearing" or "aurally disadvantaged". When people use such terms in reference to me, they usually get a ******* earful (if I hear them).
So what? That only tells me about your temperament. It doesn't demonstrate any of these "rights" that you seem to believe exist.