Originally Posted by
arthwollipot
Haven't heard that. Do you have a cite? I might need to modify my article.
Here's a decent overview:
http://answers.webmd.com/answers/116...ine-a-diuretic
My understanding is that for regular caffeine consumers the amount of liquid water in the beverage more than matches any increased output. There's a parallel with low-alcohol beverages (although alcohol is recognized as a diuretic) where the volume of liquid consumed contributes to the urine output. Wasn't there a point in history where the usual beverage was not water (because of purification issues) but weak wine or beer?