Originally Posted by
DOC
So if the German society of 1943 determines that it is in their best interest to exterminate the Jews, and to destroy the Soviet Union killing millions of people, then they can claim it is right to do so?
All of this is related to the so-called "Moral Argument" for the existence of God.
Yes. They can. And did. And the vast majority of the population seemed to have no problems with it at all.
Using your argument, if it would have been immoral then the god-given morality in all of us would have caused the entire german population to rise up agains the regime in outrage as the hard-core morality was violated.
Either that, or your god actually condoned the actions and thus the german population was quiet and happy as they were acting morally.
Now, I don't seem to recall all-out rebellion in the german population when the holocaust and the invasion of europe and the soviet union was going on. Is your claim than that Jesus was happy with that situation?
As a relativist I would claim that the nazis could claim that all they want, the rest of humanity disagrees and what is deemed moral and immoral is basically a form of majority voting. The nazi's lost.