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Old 7th November 2017, 09:22 AM   #361
theprestige
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Originally Posted by Roboramma View Post
That sounds like "they are entitled to secede if they secede successfully" in which case why talk about it in the language of rights at all?
Everybody has the right to try. Nobody is entitled to recognition if they try and fail.

Molon labe.

Possession is nine tenths of the law.

It's better to ask forgiveness than permission.

"Treason doth never prosper: what's the reason? / Why, if it prosper, none dare call it treason."
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Old 7th November 2017, 09:47 AM   #362
Craig B
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Originally Posted by Klimax View Post
Yes, they had same rights. But those rights never included right to secede! Nobody had them. That land was always under Czech kingdom.

Frankly, I am not even sure where the hell you get notion that settlers of land under one country should be somehow entitled to that thing...
I don't have that notion at all. The Sudeteners of 1938 were not settlers. They were the descendants of people who had been invited to enter the country more than half a millennium previously.

But in any case I don't think they were entitled to transfer any land from Czechoslovakia to the German Reich.
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Old 1st December 2017, 09:16 AM   #363
Henri McPhee
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The appeasement policy of Chamberlain was right judgement from a military perspective.
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Old 1st December 2017, 10:46 AM   #364
Craig B
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Originally Posted by Henri McPhee View Post
The appeasement policy of Chamberlain was right judgement from a military perspective.
The blue tiles in my bathroom are right judgement from an aesthetic perspective.
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Old 1st December 2017, 02:00 PM   #365
Klimax
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Originally Posted by Henri McPhee View Post
The appeasement policy of Chamberlain was right judgement from a military perspective.
No. Especially from that perspective.
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