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#801 |
No longer the 1
Join Date: Apr 2007
Posts: 28,613
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Over in SI&CE. http://www.internationalskeptics.com...d.php?t=366260
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As human right is always something given, it always in reality reduces to the right which men give, "concede," to each other. If the right to existence is conceded to new-born children, then they have the right; if it is not conceded to them, as was the case among the Spartans and ancient Romans, then they do not have it. For only society can give or concede it to them; they themselves cannot take it, or give it to themselves. |
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#802 |
Adelaidean
Join Date: Sep 2007
Location: Australia
Posts: 11,715
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When it comes to issues involving Parliament the SG cites court cases showing how the HCA has ruled in previous cases. Why is it wrong to assume that the HCA will continue to apply the precedent in these cases? Why would you expect the HCA to suddenly ignore over a century of precedent simply because the petitioners are Indigenous?
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#803 |
Skeptical about skeptics
Join Date: Sep 2010
Location: 31°57'S 115°57'E
Posts: 20,170
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There is no precedent for the constitution giving indigenous people a voice. This would be entirely new territory for the High Court.
Why are you assuming that the representations are not binding? That is one of the questions the HC would have to deal with if a constitutional challenge is made. Why not spell it out so that there is no risk? |
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"The process by which banks create money is so simple that the mind is repelled. Where something so important is involved, a deeper mystery seems only decent." - Galbraith, 1975 |
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#804 |
In the Peanut Gallery
Join Date: Jan 2007
Location: Melbourne
Posts: 53,479
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A fanatic is one who can't change his mind and won't change the subject. Sir Winston Churchill |
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#805 |
Adelaidean
Join Date: Sep 2007
Location: Australia
Posts: 11,715
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How would the constitution granting the Voice the right to make representations to government be "new territory" on cases based on decisions made by Parliament or the Executive government? Why would prior precedent not apply here?
I can see it if there was a case where the Voice was prevented from make a representation, but not if they had made a representation and the government didn't follow the advice given.
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Why would I expect this new advisory body to be any different from previous advisory bodies in this matter? For some reason you seem to think that the advice from the Voice will be binding, and because of that you want the wording changed based on this unknown reason. The thing is that I honestly can't see the leap between "Constitution will say that the Voice is required to exist and can give advice to government" and "Any advice given by the Voice will be legally binding". |
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