Julian Assange, the rape allegations and the Wikileaks affair.

Originally Posted by PhantomWolf
Well you were the one that said I should be allowed to avoid a trial by claiming it'd be unfair, if I had valid grounds.

So how should that be determined? Who does decide that? Unless you can answer these questions, how can you say that it is acceptable to avoid a trial by claiming it'd be unfair?

Originally Posted by John Mekki
I said that there are strong allegations that the prosecution is unfair (made by notable people like President Lula and President Correa) backed by evidence such as the fact that no other crime for sex-related issues has been prosecuted with such energy so far.

If I have to provide evidence that the trial is unfair, you have to provide evidence that it is fair.
Again, it is the same thing.
 
Just disputing something doesn't make the dispute valid.

As for realistic assurances, how about this?

1. Sweden is widely recognized as having one of the least corrupt, least politically-influenced justice systems in the world.

2. The Swedish government has guaranteed that Swedish law will be followed, and that the government will not interfere.

3. Swedish law safeguards Assange against foreign persecution for political crimes.

4. No foreign nation has accused Assange of any crime, political or otherwise.

5. While many people have disputed the above, none of them have provided any realistic evidence to support their claims.

Those are pretty realistic assurances, John. What else do you need?

1. In case of usual crimes, yes, not when the accused is reesponsible of one of the biggest leaks of information in history

2. Of course, law will be formally followed. Which means almost nothing

3. The US can charge him with any other crime and send him to jail for 30+ years

4. They can do it tomorrow morning

5. It depends on what you call as “realistic evidence”.

As for the “assurances”:

1. The UK has a long history of double standards when it comes to extradition (refused to extradite Pinochet to Spain, for example)

2. Sweden has never refused an extradition to the US since 2000, according to many sources.
http://notesonwikileaks.tumblr.com/post/15251907983/assange-extradition-fact-sheet

3. The US has an history of keeping people detained without trial for long time (Guantanamo)

4. The US has not investigated and/or prosecuted the crimes that came out in the leaks, while keeping in isolation Private Manning and therefore a blatant double-standard

5. Both the US and Sweden have refused to give assurances that the US will not seek extradition to Sweden and that Sweden will not extradite to the US

6. The UK has never gone as far as threatening to invade a foreign embassy, and all this for a sex-related crime!

and most important: very coincidentally

7. Assange is the head of Wikileaks, responsible of publishing a big quantity of confidential information
 
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Since in the Julian Assange: rapist or not? all the posts that deal with the Wikileaks affair are moved to the AAH, I have decided that it would be better to open a separate thread hoping that, in this one, the Wikileaks - rape charges connection can be discussed.

What evidence do you have that the two are "connected"?
 
What evidence do you have that the two are "connected"?

There is quite some evidence pointing in that direction.
Namely, that one of the people responsible of the biggest leaks in history has been prosecuted til the point that the UK Government (the same one that prevented the extradition of Pinochet) has gone as far as threatening to enter a foreign embassy to get him, a first in history, I guess.
All this for a sex-related crime.

As for the evidence pointing in the opposite direction?

What do we have?
 
I said that there are strong allegations that the prosecution is unfair (made by notable people like President Lula and President Correa)

So your standard is that you have to say it loudly enough? That you need supporters that claim it? That you need a foriegn President to claim it?

backed by evidence such as the fact that no other crime for sex-related issues has been prosecuted with such energy so far.

Nearly half the outstanding Red Notes on Interpol are for sex crimes, where is your evidence that no other crime for sex-related issues has been prosecuted with such energy so far? (and if you are going to claim that no one wanted for sex crimes has had a threat to come into an embassy to get them, you'll first have to prove that other people wanted for sex crimes have actually hidden in an embassy to escape the charges.)

If I have to provide evidence that the trial is unfair, you have to provide evidence that it is fair.
Again, it is the same thing.

Not how it works. The burden of proof is always on the one that makes the claim. This is why ouir legal systems work on the principle of Innocent until Proven Guilty. The State is the one laying the charges, so they are the ones that have to prove it.

In this case it is the one laying the charge that the legal system is unfair that has the Burden of Proof.
 
There is quite some evidence pointing in that direction.
Namely, that one of the people responsible of the biggest leaks in history has been prosecuted til the point that the UK Government (the same one that prevented the extradition of Pinochet) has gone as far as threatening to enter a foreign embassy to get him, a first in history, I guess.
All this for a sex-related crime.

As for the evidence pointing in the opposite direction?

What do we have?

a) Assange has not been prosecuted by the UK Government (yet, he might be for skipping bail, we'll see)

b) Pinochet's extradition was not prevent by this UK Government, and in fact was not prevent by any UK Government, it was prevented by the Home Secratary of the time. It's also irrelevent as others have had their extradition blocked by other Home Secrataries for the exact same reason as Pinochet's was, and there was nothing political about those cases.

c) If a person wanted for extradition to another country hides in a forgien embassy and under your law you can go in and get him, do you think that it might be a valid messure to consider? By the way, it's not a first, check why the law was created in the first place.
 
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a) Assange has not been prosecuted by the UK Government (yet, he might be for skipping bail, we'll see)

b) Pinochet's extradition was not prevent by this UK Government, and in fact was not prevent by any UK Government, it was prevented by the Home Secratary of the time. It's also irrelevent as others have had their extradition blocked by other Home Secrataries for the exact same reason as Pinochet's was, and there was nothing political about those cases.

c) If a person wanted for extradition to another country hides in a forgien embassy and under your law you can go in and get him, do you think that it might be a valid messure to consider? By the way, it's not a first, check why the law was created in the first place.

a) never said that the UK Government prosecuted Assange
b) OK, prevented by the Home Secretary. Which I assume is part of the UK political apparatus. To be noted that Pinochet was allegedly responsible for 3000+ deaths. Quite more serious than rape allegations. Whether irrelevant or not, it is your opinion. Other people believe it is very relevant.
c) Threatening to step into a foreign Embassy is extremely unusual and I would say it is a first.
Very strange that the UK Government is going so far when, only few years before, they prevented an alleged murdered of thousands of people to face justice, on various grounds.

On the above evidence, quite a lot of people, including influential ones, believe that there is the reasonable suspect that the prosecution may be political motivated.

On the opposite, is there any evidence at all that the prosecution is fair?
 
[..]This is why ouir legal systems work on the principle of Innocent until Proven Guilty. The State is the one laying the charges, so they are the ones that have to prove it.

In this case it is the one laying the charge that the legal system is unfair that has the Burden of Proof.

I never made the claim that there is evidence that Assange is prosecuted on political grounds, nor that the legal system is unfair.
I and many other people made the claim that there is enough evidence to suspect that this may be the case.
And therefore, that a clarification is needed on those grounds.
If you believe that there is no need to suspect that Assange may be prosecuted politically, do you have any evidence that the prosecution process is free from political interferences?
If not, the reasonable suspect stands
 
There is quite some evidence pointing in that direction.
Namely, that one of the people responsible of the biggest leaks in history has been prosecuted til the point that the UK Government (the same one that prevented the extradition of Pinochet) has gone as far as threatening to enter a foreign embassy to get him, a first in history, I guess.
All this for a sex-related crime.

That isn't evidence, it is essentially supposition. Please show the evidence that they are "connected".
 
That isn't evidence, it is essentially supposition. Please show the evidence that they are "connected".

I would call it “legitimate suspect”.
The “evidence” you want to have can not be there, for the reason that it would require someone to look into the mails of Mrs. Clinton.
And we will agree that, assuming for a second that the US Government is indeed behind Assange, they would not be so stupid to send their emails to the press shouting at loud voice “yes, this is true, we are after Assange”.
Right?

However, there is evidence on which we may legitimately suspect that the US is behind the prosecution of Assange.

Is there any evidence at all that Sweden is playing fair?
 
I would call it “legitimate suspect”.

So.... not evidence then. :rolleyes:

The “evidence” you want to have can not be there, for the reason that it would require someone to look into the mails of Mrs. Clinton.

So my 'supposition' is, in fact, a more appropriate word after all. :boggled:
And aren't wikileaks into getting info like these emails you speak of? I think we can safely assume they don't exist.

However, there is evidence on which we may legitimately suspect that the US is behind the prosecution of Assange.

Hang on.... what? First you say there is no evidence, now you are saying there is.

Where is this so called "evidence"? What is it exactly?
 
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1. In case of usual crimes, yes, not when the accused is reesponsible of one of the biggest leaks of information in history

You continue to ignore the fact that Sweden has refused to extradite similarly wanted people for espionage crimes.

2. Of course, law will be formally followed. Which means almost nothing

3. The US can charge him with any other crime and send him to jail for 30+ years

4. They can do it tomorrow morning

And yet, when they wanted other people extradited from Sweden for political or military crimes, they failed. Why is this case different? Why is it easy now when it was impossible earlier?


5. It depends on what you call as “realistic evidence”.

As for the “assurances”:

1. The UK has a long history of double standards when it comes to extradition (refused to extradite Pinochet to Spain, for example)

Sweden has a long history of not extraditing people to the US for political or military crimes. How do you feel about that?


2. Sweden has never refused an extradition to the US since 2000, according to many sources.
http://notesonwikileaks.tumblr.com/post/15251907983/assange-extradition-fact-sheet

Of these five people, how many were political or military crimes? Plus, have you noticed that your link contains outright falsehoods? For instance, it says that the sexual assault complaints wouldn't constitute a crime in any other country, which we know is false.

and most important: very coincidentally

7. Assange is the head of Wikileaks, responsible of publishing a big quantity of confidential information

Someone equally known and more wanted, Edward Lee Howard was the first CIA agent to flee the US for the USSR. He was desperately and provably wanted by the US. Sweden refused to extradite.

If you choose not to answer these challenges to your argument, then I don't believe you are trying to have a discussion in good faith, and I find your thread-making distracting and unnecessary.

If you are creating a thread just to propagandize your unexamined beliefs, I'd rather the whole lot was moved to AAH.
 
a) never said that the UK Government prosecuted Assange

So when you stated that...

Namely, that one of the people responsible of the biggest leaks in history has been prosecuted til the point that the UK Government (the same one that prevented the extradition of Pinochet) has gone as far as threatening to enter a foreign embassy to get him

Who exactly has been prosecuting him?

b) OK, prevented by the Home Secretary. Which I assume is part of the UK political apparatus. To be noted that Pinochet was allegedly responsible for 3000+ deaths. Quite more serious than rape allegations. Whether irrelevant or not, it is your opinion. Other people believe it is very relevant.

You seem to be unaware that the law and justice is blind to the supposed crime. It doesn't matter if you stole a hundred dollars, or killed a hundred people, the law and justice system should treat you the same way. You seem to believe that if the crime is heinous enough, or judging by your sig, young enough, you should be treated totally different. The Justice system simply doesn't work that way, and it shouldn't. This is why that Pinochet and Gary McKinnon's blocked extradition based on their health, has zero to do with Assange's extradition.

c) Threatening to step into a foreign Embassy is extremely unusual and I would say it is a first.
Very strange that the UK Government is going so far when, only few years before, they prevented an alleged murdered of thousands of people to face justice, on various grounds.

See I don't see it as strange at all. The last time the UK wanted someone that fled to an Embassy they ended up revoking it's status and kicking everyone out of the country. They have been quite restrained this time. Do you think that it would be a good idea to allow anyone facing extradition or any suspect to run to an embassy and claim political asylum to avoid getting removed or charged with a crime? Would that be a good precedent to sent?

On the above evidence, quite a lot of people, including influential ones, believe that there is the reasonable suspect that the prosecution may be political motivated.

The problem is that your evidence simply doesn't stack up when viewed rationally. It's like the evidence that Apollo was faked, or that 9/11 was an inside job (btw plenty of politicians in foriegn countries believe that one too), it simply vanishes under the spotlight because it likely has innocent reasons behind it. Basically you look at something that happened, assign malicious reasons to it, and then declare that it's evidence of malicious intent. Sorry, you are creating a circular argument

X is evidence of malicious intent because there is evidence of malicious intent which is X.

On the opposite, is there any evidence at all that the prosecution is fair?

You still have failed to actually provide evidence that it isn't outside of your own little circular argument.
 
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I never made the claim that there is evidence that Assange is prosecuted on political grounds, nor that the legal system is unfair.
I and many other people made the claim that there is enough evidence to suspect that this may be the case.

This is merely playing with words. You can't prove it but you can suspect it. Either the evidence shows it, or ir doesn't, if it doesn't, it doesn't matter what you suspect.

And therefore, that a clarification is needed on those grounds.
If you believe that there is no need to suspect that Assange may be prosecuted politically, do you have any evidence that the prosecution process is free from political interferences?
If not, the reasonable suspect stands

I suspect that there are unicorns on the far side of the moon, if you can't prove otherwise, then my suspect stands.

Your suspicions are circular and a confirmational bias, you believe that there could be interferrence, so everything becomes a pointer to that interference.

Your evidence is only sinister, if you assume it is sinister. You haven't shown that it really is, just that you suspect it is (that is assume it is). You can't then use that evidence to show the possiblity of suspect because your assumed the sinister motive in the first place.
 
So when you stated that...

Namely, that one of the people responsible of the biggest leaks in history has been prosecuted til the point that the UK Government (the same one that prevented the extradition of Pinochet) has gone as far as threatening to enter a foreign embassy to get him

Who exactly has been prosecuting him?

I think he was wanted from Sweden?

You seem to be unaware that the law and justice is blind to the supposed crime. It doesn't matter if you stole a hundred dollars, or killed a hundred people, the law and justice system should treat you the same way. You seem to believe that if the crime is heinous enough, or judging by your sig, young enough, you should be treated totally different. The Justice system simply doesn't work that way, and it shouldn't. This is why that Pinochet and Gary McKinnon's blocked extradition based on their health, has zero to do with Assange's extradition.

There is tons of evidence about the crimes by Pinochet, so the crimes are not "supposed".
They are real.
And, yes, Pinochet` s extradition was blocked formally for health issues
But where is the guarantee that the real reason was the one stated?

See I don't see it as strange at all. The last time the UK wanted someone that fled to an Embassy they ended up revoking it's status and kicking everyone out of the country. They have been quite restrained this time. Do you think that it would be a good idea to allow anyone facing extradition or any suspect to run to an embassy and claim political asylum to avoid getting removed or charged with a crime? Would that be a good precedent to sent?

Please show me evidence that the UK threatened to enter a foreign embassy

The problem is that your evidence simply doesn't stack up when viewed rationally. It's like the evidence that Apollo was faked, or that 9/11 was an inside job (btw plenty of politicians in foriegn countries believe that one too), it simply vanishes under the spotlight because it likely has innocent reasons behind it. Basically you look at something that happened, assign malicious reasons to it, and then declare that it's evidence of malicious intent. Sorry, you are creating a circular argument

X is evidence of malicious intent because there is evidence of malicious intent which is X.

You still have failed to actually provide evidence that it isn't outside of your own little circular argument.

You are much more in a circular argument than I am.
Assange needs to be guilty/prosecuted as the Justice system said so, and if the justice system said so is because Assange needs to be guilty/prosecuted.
You do not have the slightest doubt that the Justice system may be wrong.
So I invite you to look at the biggest picture.
At the facts.
Not at what they say.
Pinochet could have been prosecuted, he was not.
Despite being a murderer.
The crimes shown in the leaks were not prosecuted.
Assange is.
At the end, it is all about our own sense of justice
 
I think he was wanted from Sweden?



There is tons of evidence about the crimes by Pinochet, so the crimes are not "supposed".
They are real.
And, yes, Pinochet` s extradition was blocked formally for health issues
But where is the guarantee that the real reason was the one stated?



Please show me evidence that the UK threatened to enter a foreign embassy



You are much more in a circular argument than I am.
Assange needs to be guilty/prosecuted as the Justice system said so, and if the justice system said so is because Assange needs to be guilty/prosecuted.
You do not have the slightest doubt that the Justice system may be wrong.
So I invite you to look at the biggest picture.
At the facts.
Not at what they say.
Pinochet could have been prosecuted, he was not.
Despite being a murderer.
The crimes shown in the leaks were not prosecuted.
Assange is.
At the end, it is all about our own sense of justice

And the women?
 
I am still unclear on why you think that constantly repeating that certain people weren't extradited to the US supports the argument that Assange will be extradited to the US.

Doesn't it imply the opposite?
 
I am still unclear on why you think that constantly repeating that certain people weren't extradited to the US supports the argument that Assange will be extradited to the US.

Doesn't it imply the opposite?
I find illogical to assume...and all that's I've seen presented are assumptions...that the charges laid in, and extradition to, Sweden are politically motivated. If the U.S. truly wanted Assange, why wouldn't they have charged him and then tried to extradite him from the U.K.? It would be far easier to win an extradition battle in a U.K. court than it would be in a Swedish court later on, especially on the sort of charges the U.S. would lay.
 
Thank you mods for moving this thread to the proper venue.
 
I find illogical to assume...and all that's I've seen presented are assumptions...that the charges laid in, and extradition to, Sweden are politically motivated. If the U.S. truly wanted Assange, why wouldn't they have charged him and then tried to extradite him from the U.K.? It would be far easier to win an extradition battle in a U.K. court than it would be in a Swedish court later on, especially on the sort of charges the U.S. would lay.


Far easier to get an extradition from the UK but CTs seem to insist on adding endless pointless complexities to their notions.
 
I find illogical to assume...and all that's I've seen presented are assumptions...that the charges laid in, and extradition to, Sweden are politically motivated. If the U.S. truly wanted Assange, why wouldn't they have charged him and then tried to extradite him from the U.K.? [..]

The point has already been addressed several times in the other "sister" thread.
 
The story so far: Politicians should not influence the judicial system. Except for Wikileaks. Wikileaks is so special that politicians should definitely influence the judicial system, to prevent anyone involved in Wikileaks from standing trial for crimes that have nothing to do with Wikileaks.

Is that about right, John?
 
The story so far: Politicians should not influence the judicial system. Except for Wikileaks. Wikileaks is so special that politicians should definitely influence the judicial system, to prevent anyone involved in Wikileaks from standing trial for crimes that have nothing to do with Wikileaks.

Is that about right, John?

Plus anyone who harms the US is forever designated a good guy and can never do evil.
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murder_of_Yvonne_Fletcher

Libyan Embassy Siege.
The Libyan Embassy had its status revoked and the occupants were expelled.

So we are talking about an international accident between the UK and Libya that almost provoked a war and the closure of an Embassy.

Two years later it became a major factor in Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher's decision to allow U.S. President Ronald Reagan to launch the U.S. bombing of Libya in 1986 from American bases in the United Kingdom.[2]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murder_of_Yvonne_Fletcher

And why the UK is doing the same for a person prosecuted for sex-related crime?
(if we do not believe that this, too, is some kind of international accident)
And why the UK was not doing the same for Pinochet?
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murder_of_Yvonne_Fletcher

Libyan Embassy Siege.
The Libyan Embassy had its status revoked and the occupants were expelled.

So we are talking about an international accident happened almost thirty years ago (!) between the UK and Libya that almost provoked a war and the closure of an Embassy.

Two years later it became a major factor in Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher's decision to allow U.S. President Ronald Reagan to launch the U.S. bombing of Libya in 1986 from American bases in the United Kingdom.[2]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murder_of_Yvonne_Fletcher

And why the UK is doing the same for a person prosecuted for sex-related crime?
(if we do not believe that this, too, is some kind of international accident)
And why the UK was not doing the same for Pinochet, who murdered thousands?
 
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So we are talking about an international accident happened almost thirty years ago (!)...
Pinochet was indicted over 10 years ago. What's your statute of limitations?

And why the UK is doing the same for a person prosecuted for sex-related crime?
Because a person prosecuted for a sex-related crime fled to an embassy?

What are the police supposed to do? Let him go?

(if we do not believe that this, too, is some kind of international accident)
Technically, as soon as he left Sweden for the UK, forcing Sweden to seek his extradition there, it became an international incident.

And why the UK was not doing the same for Pinochet, who murdered thousands?
Because Pinochet didn't seek refuge in an embassy.

In Pinochet's case, a politician (the Home Secretary) interfered in the judicial process. We have clear, incontrovertible evidence that this happened.

In Assange's case, we have no evidence at all that politicians have interfered in the judicial process.

The judicial process is being followed.

John Mekki: But it shouldn't be followed in this case!

The judicial process is a good and fair process.

John Mekki: But that doesn't matter!
 
I think he was wanted from Sweden?

Being wanted and being prosecuted are two different things, you specifically stated prosecuted and indicated that it was more than anyone else would be. You have provided no evidence of this claim.

There is tons of evidence about the crimes by Pinochet, so the crimes are not "supposed".
They are real.

That the crimes may be real is not the question. The question is Pinochet's guilt. Since there was no trial, you cannot say that he was guilty, only that he was accused of allegedly committing the crimes. In the exact same way, we can only state that Assange is an alleged rapist.

And, yes, Pinochet` s extradition was blocked formally for health issues
But where is the guarantee that the real reason was the one stated?

And what guarantee is there are that unicorns aren't on the far side of the moon? Nothing can ever be proven 100%, there is no such thing as a total guarantee. This is why we require evidence of claims.

See this is your problem.

Firstly you can't actually show that there was likely political interferrence with Pinochet's Extradion beyond what the law of the time allowed. Because of that you can't do more that speculate that there might have been because no one can prove there wasn't (something totally unprovable.)

Secondly, you have the issue that even if you could show that Pinochet's extradition was likely interfered with, that this still has zero to do with Assange's. See let's for a case of wishful thinking say that documents turn up tomorrow that say yes Pinochet's was because of politics. That still doesn't change anything for Assange because there is no link between him and Pinochet.

You are trying to do prove B = D like so

1) If A = D
2) And B = A
3) Then B = D

See the issue here? Even if you prove (1), which you haven't, it doesn't automatically make (2) correct. Pinochet's Extradition could have been interfered without there being any interference at all with Assange's. This is still an entirely valid senario that you are discounting without cause.

So instead you simply assume (1), then you assume (2) and having waved a magic wand, you declare victory and claim (3). It doesn't work that way.

Please show me evidence that the UK threatened to enter a foreign embassy

Captain Swoop has done this for me, and it has been posted previously. How many cases can you find where wanted persons in Britain have run to hide in Embassies and have not been chased?

You are much more in a circular argument than I am.
Assange needs to be guilty/prosecuted as the Justice system said so, and if the justice system said so is because Assange needs to be guilty/prosecuted.
You do not have the slightest doubt that the Justice system may be wrong.

Not just a strawman but a totaly illogical and warpped idea of how the law works as well.

The Justice System hasn't said anything about Assange's guilt as of yet. The Justice System kicks in once a trial starts, and since he isn't before a trial yet, the Justice System is quiet as to his case.

The Law states that Assange should likely face trial (I say likely because even that has not been determined yet and won't be until he returns to Sweden.) The Law says that when someone is accused of a crime for which the police and prosecutors find reasonable cause to believe occured then that person is entitled to a trial to determine the facts of the case so that they may put up a defence and not be sentenced for that crime unless found by the trial to be guilty of it.

The facts of the matter is that a) Assange has been accused of a crime and b) The police and prosecution believe they have reasonable cause, so by law, unless they decided to not press charges, there should be a trial.

This is not circular reasoning, it is the law.

So I invite you to look at the biggest picture.

I have, I don't agree with the parts you want to add to "the big picture".

At the facts.

I have looked at the facts, and the facts say Assange should return to Sweden.

Not at what they say.

Who is they?

Pinochet could have been prosecuted, he was not.

Irrelevent as shown above. Pinochet not being prosecuted has nothing to do with Asange.

Despite being a murderer.

Factually incorrect. Regardless of your personal belief on the matter, legally Pinochet was never found guilty of murder.

The crimes shown in the leaks were not prosecuted.

Who determined that what was shown in the leaks were in fact crimes?

Assange is.

Assange is wanted because his alleged victims complained to the police about him, and from there the Police and the Prosecution Service have done their jobs. Do you think that the police and Prosecution should have told the complainents, "Sorry, he's a public figure so we're not going to do anything about him."?

At the end, it is all about our own sense of justice

No it has nothing to do with "own sense of justice." Western Countries have instituted a rule of Law and a Justice system of Courts, Juries, Judges, and Trials to deal with justice in a fair and consistant manner simnply because as a collective our sense of justice is totally off. If someone raped and murdered my sister and the police said, I think this is the guy, then my sense of justice would want him tied upside down to a lamp post by his testies. The fact this doesn't happen is that we are a society of laws, and we don't make up how the world should work based on our "own sense of justice." Most of the Western World broke from that mould centuries ago, the US at the end of the Wild West. We tend to be more civilised now.
 
So we are talking about an international accident between the UK and Libya that almost provoked a war and the closure of an Embassy.

Two years later it became a major factor in Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher's decision to allow U.S. President Ronald Reagan to launch the U.S. bombing of Libya in 1986 from American bases in the United Kingdom.[2]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murder_of_Yvonne_Fletcher

And why the UK is doing the same for a person prosecuted for sex-related crime?
(if we do not believe that this, too, is some kind of international accident)
And why the UK was not doing the same for Pinochet?

Wow, Ronald Reagan. Hey did you know that Ronald Reagan tried to get somebody, a US citizen actually, extradited from Sweden to the US on espionage charges and totally failed? He couldn't do it.

Did you know that Sweden hasn't extradited anyone to the US on political or military charges?
 
Also, you have promised elsewhere to reply to my various questions in this thread.

If you continue to refuse, I will have to make my own assumptions about whether you're trying to have a discussion in good faith, or whether you're just one-sidedly broadcasting your hunches as facts.
 
And why the UK was not doing the same for Pinochet, who murdered thousands?

I didn't realise that Pinochet skipped bail and hid in an Embassy. Evidence for this?

(and you could also include your proof that Pinochet was found guilty of murdering thousands while you are at it.)
 
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Plus anyone who harms the US is forever designated a good guy and can never do evil.

I'm sure immoral people are all taking notes. They can commit horrible crimes and expect to have loads of internet warriors defending them so long as they first harm the USA.

"So what that you have video proof that I shot that disabled girl. I exposed the Tirbinum sales of the CIA and thus embarrassed them!"
 
1. In case of usual crimes, yes, not when the accused is reesponsible of one of the biggest leaks of information in history

The only one accusing him of this seems to be you. Everyone else, including as far as we can tell, the US DoJ and DoD believe that it was Bradley Manning who is responsible of one of the biggest leaks of information in history and that Assange had very little to do with it, basically just receiving it and passing on to others.

2. Of course, law will be formally followed. Which means almost nothing

The Law means quite a bit actually, it's the very thing that makes sure that we have a stable and descent society rather than trying to kill each other over percieved slights

3. The US can charge him with any other crime and send him to jail for 30+ years

No they can't. They can only charge him for things they can show evidence for.

4. They can do it tomorrow morning

Only if there is evidence he did what they claim.

1. The UK has a long history of double standards when it comes to extradition (refused to extradite Pinochet to Spain, for example)

Please explain how the Uk's final descion on Pinochet was a double standard.

2. Sweden has never refused an extradition to the US since 2000, according to many sources.
http://notesonwikileaks.tumblr.com/post/15251907983/assange-extradition-fact-sheet

How many of these were for political crimes?

3. The US has an history of keeping people detained without trial for long time (Guantanamo)

How many of these people were extradited to mainland US for a civil trial?

4. The US has not investigated and/or prosecuted the crimes that came out in the leaks, while keeping in isolation Private Manning and therefore a blatant double-standard

Really? Didn't Assange himself claim that the US was investigating them? Also, if there was no investigation, how did the US DoD determine that Manning was the one responsible for the leaks?

Exactly what is the double standard?

5. Both the US and Sweden have refused to give assurances that the US will not seek extradition to Sweden and that Sweden will not extradite to the US

Sweden has given what assurances it can. Do you think that if there is a legitimate reason that Assange could be extradited to the US for a legitimate criminal charge, he shouldn't have to face it?

6. The UK has never gone as far as threatening to invade a foreign embassy, and all this for a sex-related crime!

Appart from being incorrect, how many people have tried escaping the UK Justice system by hiding in an Embassy?

and most important: very coincidentally

7. Assange is the head of Wikileaks, responsible of publishing a big quantity of confidential information

Wasn't that your first point? You still have to show why it is actually relevent.
 
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