Bible inconsistencies - a question please?

Recently I have been visiting various Christian websites, because I'm fascinated by the inconsistencies in the Bible.

One of the frequent arguments that such items aren't inconsistent is that they're "literary devices" used at the time.

Now my question is: Have these "literary devices" been discovered from the Bible - and are therefore self-referencing - or are they independently proveable from other sources?

Thanks!
Oh - and in spite of being an Atheist, I still ike to wish people:

Nadolig Llawen y blwyddyn newydd Dda!

YBW

Oops sorry - double thread - still two for the price of one can't be bad!

I blame the headaches - or a stubborn PC keyboard!!

Please can a moderator remove one of them?

Thanks

Since the OP doesn't include specific examples, it's hard to discuss anything comprehensive. But generally, it's a mixed bag. Some devices are similar to thise in modern literature. Some resemble ancient mythology, sometimes intentionally and sometimes not. Some are parables.

In short, if you want to get into this you'll need to be more specific.

OK you're right,

I'll search out some stuff.

David - I've replied in the other thread - it probably doesn't make sense to have the two!

YBW